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Exam Code: HP0-J49
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing HP Cloud Solutions using HP 3PAR)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 105 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Which user privileges are needed to create tasks to be initiated by the System Scheduler using the CLI.?
(Select two.)
A. Super
B. Browse
C. Edit
D. Service
E. Admin
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 A system engineer installs the System Reporter in a customer environment. Which databases can be
used with System Reporter? (Select two.)
A. MySQL
B. MS SQL
C. Informix
D. Oracle
E. Progress
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Which statement is correct when implementing Many-to-One Remote Copy?
A. Only asynchronous periodic mode is supported.
B. A minimum of two controllers are required per InServ per site.
C. Up to two target sites are supported.
D. The maximum support is six InServs to one.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are the minimum HP Care Pack Services for customers purchasing an HP 3PAR T-Series Array?
(Select two.)
A. HP Data Migration Service
B. 3-Year HP Support Plus w/DMR
C. 3-Year HP Support Plus 24
D. HP 3PAR Storage System Installation and Startup Service
E. 3-Year HP Critical Service
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 When deploying a F400 with a single magazine in the chassis, what is the minimum upgrade building
block allowed in an F-Class?
A. There must be the same types of drives as in the initial system.
B. A minimum of two ports for backend disk connectivity is required.
C. There must be the same number of drives as the initial system.
D. An upgrade must be performed with a minimum of eight drives.
Answer: A

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NO.6 When creating a CPG (Common Provisioning Group) on an HP 3PAR array, what is the minimum
information you need to provide to the system? (Select two.)
A. device type
B. volume group
C. domain
D. CPG name
E. host name
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 A system engineer implemented Remote Copy between two F-400 systems. For which entity can a
failover be initiated?
A. domain group
B. controller node
C. entire system
D. domain
Answer: C

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NO.8 When adding disk drives to a T-class drive chassis, how many drives must be added at the same time?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.9 You are in a meeting with a customer and they have asked if the 3PAR storage array is a good fit for
them. Which customer needs are best met by the 3PAR architecture?
A. the customer that has random I/O workload and wants to achieve greater VM density
B. the customer whose primary requirement is sequential performance
C. the customer with a large data warehouse application
D. the customer with long term image archiving requirements
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which 3PAR InForm additional software provides savings on $/IOPS and $/GB?
A. System Tuner
B. Virtual Domains
C. Adaptive Optimization
D. Thin Persistence
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which statement is true about the creation of virtual copies on an HP 3PAR array?
A. A maximum of 1024 virtual copies of each virtual volume is allowed.
B. It is only possible to create a read-only copy of a read-only volume.
C. A read-only copy can have multiple read/write virtual copies.
D. A read-only copy is automatically created when utilizing the InForm GUI.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which statement is true about Virtual Lock on an HP 3PAR array?
A. Virtual Lock functionality is included in the base product.
B. Virtual Lock sets a read-only flag to a volume to prevent overwriting the volume. However, it can be
deleted.
C. Virtual Lock prevents a volume from being deleted intentionally or unintentionally before the retention
period elapses.
D. Virtual Lock can be used to specify the retention period for each volume, but not a copy of a volume.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which feature of the InForm operating system provides adaptable volume reconfiguration?
A. Autonomic Groups
B. Virtual Lock
C. Host Personas
D. Dynamic Optimization
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which storage-as-a-utility benefit does the HP 3PAR solution offer?
A. consistent performance across mixed workloads
B. Ingress data deduplication
C. configurations for archiving and D2D backup
D. lowest cost per gigabyte
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is a key advantage of an HP 3PAR solution?
A. The solution is designed primarily as a cloud offering.
B. It uses finely granular distribution across an entire disk group.
C. Data is distributed across entire RAID sets.
D. Storage can be provisioned in as few as two commands.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-M46
Exam Name: HP (HP Application Lifecycle Management 11.x Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Which annotation tools can be used to detect a defect during an HP Sprinter test run? (Select two.)
A. Ruler tool
B. Step tool
C. Click tool
D. Guides tool
E. Align tool
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 What is HP Sprinter?
A. an automated test environment for exploratory testers
B. a manual test environment for exploratory testers
C. a manual test execution environment
D. a manual test development environment
Answer: C

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NO.3 What does Risk-Based Quality Management enable you to do?
A. determine which requirements to add to the application
B. calculate the number of tests to be built per requirement
C. calculate the level at which each requirement should be tested
D. predict defect per requirement
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which options can be used to submit defects from HP Sprinter to HP Application Lifecycle Management?
(Select two.)
A. Smart Identification
B. Defect Checking
C. Smart Defects
D. Smart Defects Identification
E. Defect Reminder
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 What are the potential subsequent states of a "Fixed" defect.? (Select two.)
A. Closed
B. Reopened
C. Complete
D. New
E. Reviewed
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which entities can be linked to a defect? (Select two.)
A. Cycles
B. Releases
C. Reports
D. Defects
E. Tests
Answer: D,E

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NO.7 What is the implication of having a direct link between a defect and a test?
A. The defect is directly linked to the related Test Run.
B. The defect is indirectly linked to the related Requirement.
C. The defect is indirectly linked to the related Test Set.
D. The defect is directly linked to the related Test Instance.
Answer: B

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NO.8 By default, what does HP Application Lifecycle Management assign when a new defect is created?
(Select two.)
A. a unique defect ID
B. the status Created
C. a version number
D. the status New
E. a unique test set
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 A tester reports that when running a test, HP Sprinter is preventing him from attaching a movie of the
test run to the defect he is submitting. How can this problem be resolved?
A. by the user adjusting options in his HP Sprinter user interface
B. by the user re-establishing his HP Application Lifecycle Management connection
C. by the project administrator enabling the llow attaching movies to defects?option on the
Customization > HP Sprinter pageby the project administrator enabling the ?llow attaching movies to
defects?option on the Customization > HP Sprinter page
D. by the project administrator enabling the llow attaching movies to defects?option for the
appropriate user group on the Customization >by the project administrator enabling the ?llow attaching
movies to defects?option for the appropriate user group on the Customization > Groups and
Permissions > Defects page
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which tool can be used to store information about a defect in HP Sprinter without disrupting test flow?
A. Defect Highlighter tool
B. Test Defect tool
C. Smart Defect tool
D. Defect Reminder tool
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-T20
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP ProLiant Servers HP Sales)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 How many clients can the top-end HP VirtualSystem VS3 support.?
A. 2,000
B. 3,000
C. 4,000
D. 5,000
Answer: D

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NO.2 How many general server workload virtual machines can the top-end HP VirtualSystem VS3 support?
A. 3,000
B. 4,000
C. 5,000
D. 6,000
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the typical estimated IT budget for major organizations, as a percentage of annual revenues?
A. 1%
B. 3%
C. 5%
D. 10%
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP3-C33
Exam Name: HP (HP Color LaserJet Enterprise CP5520 Series Printer)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 The front and right-side door tab actuators o( the HP Color LaserJet Enterprise CP5520 Series
Printer provide a device safety feature that cuts power to certain components What are those
components? (Select two)
A. Formatter
B. Lasers
C. Low-voltage power supply
D. ICB
E. Motors
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 What are some advantages of the new HICUP/SO engine design compared to previous printers?
(Select two.)
A. The fuser is closer to the print cartridges for effective toner fusing.
B. Print cartridges remain cooler, reducing print-quality issues.
C. Laser/scanners block fuser heat to protect ITB surface.
D. The paper path exit is further from the fuser, reducing the number of paper exit jams.
E. The height of the engine is reduced to maximize use of internal space.
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the HP Color LaserJet Enterprise CP5520 Series Printer HP High
Performance Secure Hard Disk?
A. The encrypted hard disk contents are deleted if a device Cold Reset is performed.
B. The encrypted hard disk is physically locked to the device using a Drive Lock Key.
C. The encrypted disk contents become unreadable if the disk is removed from the device.
D. The encrypted hard disk must only be installed by a qualified HP service technician
Answer: B

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Reference:http://bizsupport1.austin.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c01570023 /c0
1570023.pdf(page 4, first para)

NO.4 When are the Protective Glass Cleaners (PGCs) used by the device?
A. During engine calibration
B. After a fuser wrap jam is cleared from the device
C. After the ITB cleaning blade removes residual toner from the belt
D. Each time a page is printed
Answer: C

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NO.5 The HP Color LaserJet Enterprise CP5520 Series Printer uses an intermediate transfer belt (ITB).
What is one difference between ITB technology and electrostatic transfer belt (ETB) technology?
A. An, and an ITB transfers the image directly to the media.
B. ITB technology runs media along the length of the ITB during image transfer while ETB
technology utilizes a secondary transfer roller at the edge of the ETB during image transfer.
C. An ITB uses primary transfer rollers to transfer the image from each OPC (image drum) to the ITB,
and an ETB transfers the image directly to the media.
D. ITB technology uses a cleaning blade and toner collection unit for ITB belt cleaning, and ETB
technology uses only a residual toner feed unit for ETB belt cleaning
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP3-X11
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Notebook Products)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 44 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 What does Privacy Manager for HP ProtectTools provide? (Select three.)
A. smart card support
B. encrypted hard drive partitions
C. support for IM message privacy
D. a digital certificate server application
E. integration with Microsoft Office
F. data encryption tools
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.2 Which technology supports Intel Anti-Theft protection in HP notebooks.?
A. DigiTrak
B. Lo Jack Pro
C. Computrace
D. Absolute
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is a new feature of HP Connection Manager 3.1 that is available for HP Elitebook notebooks?
A. an interactive interface that supports touch
B. support for integrated Bluetooth devices
C. support for the HP un2400 Mobile Broadband module
D. a GPS tab that displays latitude, longitude, and altitude
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statements are true about Enhanced Pre-Boot Security for HP business notebooks? (Select two.)
A. Multifactor biometric authentication is supported.
B. Creating a Windows user automatically creates a pre-boot user.
C. Pre-boot users are required to be administrators.
D. Authentication at pre-boot requires users to also log on to Windows.
E. Passwords can be recovered by storing answers to a personal response question.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which types of drives can be configured for the HP Advanced Docking Station? (Select two.)
A. PATA hard drive
B. SATA hard drive
C. PATA optical drive-DVD+/-RW
D. SATA optical drive-DVD+/-RW
E. SATA blu-ray drive-DVD+/-RW
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: HP2-E15
Exam Name: HP (HP BladeSystem Sales Consultant )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Why would you suggest the HP Mission Critical and Proactive Services to your customers?
A. They are high-cost services and will help you meet your numbers.
B. It is the only way you will meet the new Penetration Rate Index (PRI) commitment.
C. They are a way of guaranteeing that a customer never has any more unplanned downtime.
D. They can help reduce a customer's exposure and vulnerability and protect against costly downtime
risks.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Where do HP Education Services belong within the Business Critical Server (BCS) support services
portfolio?
A. referral services
B. premium services
C. value-added services
D. basic support services
Answer: C

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NO.3 HP currently employs how many service professionals in how many countries worldwide?
A. less than 49,000 in 70 countries
B. more than 69,000 in 150 countries
C. more than 69,000 in 170 countries
D. more than 96,000 in 150 countries
Answer: C

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NO.4 When is the best time to position HP Deployment Services to your customer?
A. at the start of the sales process that involves new hardware
B. after new hardware is delivered and the customer experiences technical difficulties
C. during the configuration process when HP Installation Services are added to the order
D. after a hardware order is finalized and the customer starts to plan deployment activities
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement best describes a customer benefit of choosing HP Proactive Essentials
Services?
A. provides a tailor-made service for the customer
B. decreases outages caused by software defects
C. provides cost-effective management with ongoing advice
D. keeps the hardware and software running and maintains IT availability objectives
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which services are included in the Virtualization Services portfolio? (Select three.)
A. education
B. data migration
C. telephone support
D. performance assessment
E. capacity planner assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.7 When justifying the investment in services to a customer, which response is considered a best practice?
A. Provide lots of industry examples of where HP is number one.
B. Ensure that the customer understands all of the features of the services being offered.
C. Only inclued services in the sales cycle onve the customer has decded on the hardware and software
solution.
D. Take a solutions selling approach to assure that the relationship between business goals and the
impact of IT on those goals is understood.
Answer: D

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NO.8 How can HP ProLiant Services help reduce a customer's overall cost? (Select three.)
A. protects business data
B. minimizes the risk of downtime
C. results in 80% less deployment costs
D. optimizes power management in the IT environment
E. decreases IT maintenance and improves operational efficiency
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.9 Which service is bundled with VMware licenses?
A. no service is bundled
B. 9x5 support
C. 24x7 support
D. HP Installation and Startup Service
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the best question to open a dialogue with a customer that is in a changing IT
Environment.?
A. How do you staff for special projects?
B. Ideally, how many additional staff do you plan to recruit?
C. What kian of changes is the business asking you to make?
D. What are you plans to achieve the next level of availability?
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-B80
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Imaging and Printing Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 How is office printing costs typically calculated for a document?
A. only the cost of the printing hardware
B. only the cost of the printing hardware and the annual cost of the supplies
C. only the cost for administration and for the hardware of the printer
D. the cost of the network management, supplies, hardware, and administration
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is most important to remember about both transactional and consultative sales.?
A. You should focus primarily on the volume of sales.
B. You should focus only on your margin.
C. You should minimize time spent with customers.
D. You should focus on your customer's business problems.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement is true about how customers typically view office printing costs?
A. Customers typically look at the cost of supplies and hardware, but they do not consider IT costs.
B. Customers typically look at IT costs and the cost of supplies, but they do not consider hardware costs.
C. Customers typically look at hardware and IT costs, but they do not consider cost of supplies.
D. Customers typically look at hardware costs, but they do not consider IT costs or the cost of supplies.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is an accurate description of an imaging and printing solution?
A. a long-term strategic plan
B. a combination of hardware and software to address the problem
C. a new printer
D. a review of all available software that works with imaging and printing devices
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-M55
Exam Name: HP (ArcSight ESM Administrator)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 With regard to SmartConnectors, what is roll back?
A. collecting cached data after a communication failure
B. uninstallation of a package in the event of failure
C. a way to revert to the previous version of a Connector when a Connector upgrade fails
D. a way to gather data that has moved beyond the archive window
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement is true about starting and stopping ArcSight SmartConnector services?
A. They are started and stopped independently of the other ArcSight component services.
B. The order in which they are started and stopped is based on event flow.
C. How they are started and stopped depends on whether or not the ArcSight Manager is running.
D. They are started and stopped in conjunction with the Oracle database services.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a trust store (sometimes called a key store)?
A. the preferred source for obtaining signed certificates
B. a list of trusted Certificate Authorities
C. the location of a system's private keys
D. the set of backup files containing SSL information
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which ArcSight Foundation should you use to identify and analyze unexpected modifications to
systems, devices, or applications?
A. Configuration Monitoring
B. Intrusion Monitoring
C. ArcSight Administration
D. Network Monitoring
Answer: A

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NO.5 What happens when a Connector upgrade that was initiated from within the ArcSight Console fails.?
A. The Connector automatically rolls back to the previously working version.
B. The Connector does not respond to the failed upgrade.
C. The Connector reports to the Manager that the upgrade failed and then died.
D. The Connector automatically attempts the upgrade again.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which ArcSight Foundation should you use to identify traffic and bandwidth usage?
A. Configuration Monitoring
B. Intrusion Monitoring
C. ArcSight Administration
D. Network Monitoring
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are ArcSight Foundations?
A. user groups organized to explore and share ideas for extending ArcSight ESM capabilities
B. coordinated resources that provide monitoring, analysis, and reporting capabilities
C. categories of resources used for monitoring ArcSight system health and status
D. packages that are installed but cannot be modified
Answer: B

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NO.8 During Connector install, which statement is true about the ArcSight Manager's host name or IP
address?
A. It must match the host name or IP address in the ArcSight Manager's SSL certificate.
B. The host name or IP address is used as an encryption key.
C. It can be any legitimate host name or IP address.
D. It must contain a combination of alpha-numeric characters.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which key pair types are valid selections when using the Manager Setup Wizard to create an SSL key
pair? (Select two.)
A. non-expiring SSL key pair
B. self-signed key pair
C. demo key pair
D. random generator key pair
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 What must be done first to restore the database from an online backup?
A. run the Oracle restore wizard
B. ensure that the archived redo logs are located in the archive log destination
C. bring the affected tablespaces online
D. reinstall the Oracle installation
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-K25
Exam Name: HP (Supporting and Servicing HP P4000 Solutions )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 39 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Where does the SAN/iQ control software run?
A. on the Storage Systems, managing the software on the Storage Systems, and communicating with the
CMC
B. on the Client, managing communications with the Storage System
C. on the CMC, managing communications with the Storage System
D. on the CMC, managing communications with the Client
Answer: A

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NO.2 Where does the CMC management console run?
A. The CMC runs in a browser on the client.
B. The CMC runs on a Java platform that can communicate directly with the Storage Systems.
C. The CMC runs on a Java platform on the Storage Systems.
D. The CMC runs natively on the Storage Systems.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is NOT a prerequisite for administering the solution via the Centralized Management Console
(CMC)?
A. Obtain a Microsoft SQL License.
B. Install the Storage System hardware and cables.
C. Power up the Storage Systems.
D. Assign IP addresses for the Storage Systems
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-B91
Exam Name: HP (Imaging and Printing Supplies - Sale )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 What defines the total HP supplies sales?
A. average printer age, number of users, yield per cartridge
B. hardware market share, number of users, supplies market share
C. HP installed base, usage, HP supplies market share
D. market size, usage, aftermarket
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are primary factors in the explosion of digital content.? (Select two.)
A. faster print speeds
B. analog to digital content
C. better print quality
D. mobility and the internet
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 What is part of the HP system message?
A. HP UX, All-in-One cartridges, HP FutureSmart
B. photopaper, digital cameras, aftermarket
C. supplies, hardware, media
D. laptops, touchpads, servers, printers
Answer: C

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NO.4 In which type of hardware does the majority of the current total supplies sell-out occur?
A. most current workgroup printers from this year's line-up
B. most current MFPs from this year s line-up
C. older devices than the current line-up
D. most current retail inkjet devices from this year s line-up
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement is correct about product life cycle of supplies?
A. It is shorter than the printer's product lifecycle.
B. It is the same as the printer's product lifecycle.
C. It is significantly longer than the printer's product lifecycle.
D. It is linked to the page coverage
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-N29
Exam Name: HP (Understanding HP TippingPoint Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 What is the default user access granted when creating a new local user on the IPS?
A. Operator
B. SuperUser
C. Undefined
D. Administrator
Answer: B

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NO.2 The TippingPoint IPS Command Line Interface (CLI) is accessed using which protocol?
A. SNTP
B. VoIP
C. TOS
D. SSH
Answer: D

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NO.3 How does HP TippingPoint provide filter updates?
A. TippingPoint Operating System
B. IGRP
C. Digital vaccine
D. Hot Patch Install
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which value is required during the IPS OBE process?
A. filter changes
B. serial number
C. TOS version number
D. security level
Answer: C

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NO.5 A TippingPoint Operating System (TOS) can be downloaded from which website?
A. TOS.tippingpoint.com
B. TMC.tippingpoint.com
C. HTC.tippingpoint.com
D. SMC.tippingpoint.com
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-M23
Exam Name: HP (HP Business Availability Center Foundation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-29

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NO.1 Which alert type can be configured to alert on a specific page, or screen, of a monitored application?
A.SLA alert
B.Paging alert
C.Sitescope alert
D.Event based alert
ANSWER: D

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NO.2 Which report types are available in the End User Management application?
A.Summary, Alerts, System Availability
B.User Defined, Business Process, Real User
C.Alerts, Network & Tools, Service Level, Business Process
D.Summary, Business Process, Real User, Status Snapshot
ANSWER: D

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NO.3 What types of System Health are available?
A.only the BAC built-in System Health is available
B.Operations Center System Health and BAC built-in System Health
C.BAC built-in System Health and enhanced System Health based on Sitescope
D.BAC built-in System Health and enhanced System Health based on Real User Monitor
ANSWER: C

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NO.4 How would you create a relationship between a CI and a Business Process Monitor when defining a
profile?
A.Use the instance view editor automatic CI attachment process.
B.Use the Monitor Deployment Wizard to automatically assign a monitor to a specific CI.
C.Create a profile and use the attach CI option in the EUM Administration profile creation operation.
D.Create a profile and run it, make sure the adapters are synced and then edit a view and attach the
monitor from within the view
ANSWER: C

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NO.5 What is a context in Infrastructure Settings?
A.the source application that triggers a set of alarms
B.a group of foundations to which the same settings can be applied
C.a group of applications to which the same settings can be applied
D.an aid to separate all BAC configurable items into applications and foundations
ANSWER: D

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NO.6 What does the data collector maintenance page in the Business Availability Center platform enable
you to do?
A.remotely install Sitescope instances on specific servers.
B.manage and maintain Sitescope, Business Process Monitor, and RUM
C.remotely install, manage and troubleshoot the operation of the Discovery Probe
D.manage and install Business Process Monitor and Real User Monitor probe instances on specific
servers
ANSWER: B

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NO.7 How are BPM monitoring locations determined? (Select two.)
A.by distant locations
B.by random selection
C.by high user populations
D.by lowest cost to implement
E.by high return on investment
ANSWER: CE

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NO.8 What is the purpose of the session analyzer report?
A.to correlate between sessions, session groups and session users
B.to display user session data for applications configured for real user monitoring
C.to show the history of all closed sessions which were opened against the application configured
D.to display the status of the users that are currently using the application which is being monitored
ANSWER: B

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NO.9 In a typical organization, who manages the troubleshooting of IT infrastructure?
A.BAC Administrator
B.IT Service Manager
C.Application Manager
D.Operations Engineer
ANSWER: D

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NO.10 What is the purpose of the Downloads page?
A.a location from which you can download BAC components
B.a location to which you can download tools for use with BAC
C.links to locations from which you can download BAC add-on monitors
D.a location within the BAC directory structure where you can store downloaded software
ANSWER: A

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NO.11 What information does the Status Snapshot Report provide?
A.worst transaction response time, worst availability by location
B.worst transaction response time, worst availability by location
C.worst availability by transaction, worst availability by location, worst availability by application, slowest
applications
D.worst response time by transaction, worst response time by location, worst response time by
application, slowest applications
ANSWER: C

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NO.12 Which log files are used for troubleshooting SiteScope?
A.Alert, Error and Topaz_all.ejb
B.Run Monitor, HP BAC and Operator
C.Run Monitor, SiteScope_all and Operator
D.Topaz_all.ejb, NannyStatus and Jboss_boot
ANSWER: B

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NO.13 How can you navigate to the web interface of a data collector (for example, BPM, Sitescope or RUM
Engine) without knowing its explicit name or IP address?
A.Write a query on the UCMDB to locate the data collector name and IP address in order to access it.
B.Navigate to "Admin>Platform>Data Collection>Data Collector Maintenance" and select the appropriate
tab.
C.Navigate to "Admin>End User Management Administration>Monitor" and locate the BPM you have just
installed.
D.Navigate to "Admin>Universal CMDB Administration>Source Manager" and edit the data collector
adapter to list all appropriate data collectors.
ANSWER: B

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NO.14 What is the role of the built-in BAC System Health?
A.display in a dashboard view the status of all BAC components
B.measure BAC performance and display BAC resources consumption and usage
C.display in a graphical form all the components of BAC and the relationship between them
D.detect problems with data collectors, BAC database, and the servers on which BAC runs
ANSWER: B

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NO.15 Business Availability Center is powered by a set of servers that are responsible for facilitating system
management, data handling, reporting, and alerting. Which servers are included within the Business
Availability Center basic framework? (Select two.)
A.Print Server
B.Data Server
C.Gateway Server
D.Discovery Server
E.Application Server
F.Data Processing Server
ANSWER: CF

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NO.16 What is the purpose of Infrastructure Settings?
A.to configure the hardware settings of the BAC servers
B.to configure the look and feel of the BAC graphical user interface
C.to define the various settings which determine how BAC and its applications run
D.to configure the binding between BAC and the network interfaces on the BAC servers
ANSWER: C

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NO.17 What is the main function of the Report Repository?
A.store reports imported from other applications
B.store reports saved by users at a specific state
C.store reports saved by users with dynamic state
D.store reports specific to the Dashboard component of BAC
ANSWER: B

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NO.18 What is the meaning of the origin attribute that exists in each CI?
A.the BAC user that created the CI
B.the view in which the CI was created
C.the package from which the CIT was deployed
D.the data source or user that added the CI to the CMDB
ANSWER: D

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NO.19 How do you navigate the user interface to enter a license in BAC?
A.Navigate to Admin>My BAC>License Management and enter a new license.
B.Accept the basic, built-in factory license as part of the installation phase of BAC.
C.Navigate to Help>About HP Business Availability Center>Registration and enter a new license.
D.Navigate to Admin>Platform Administration>Setup and Maintenance>License Management and enter
a new license.
ANSWER: D

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NO.20 How would you check the start-up status of BAC using the HP BAC Server Status?
A.in the web browser navigate to http://:8180/BACServerStatus.asp
B.in the web browser navigate to http://:8180/BACServerStatus.asp
C.on the gateway and the Data Processing server click on Start > Programs > HP BAC > Administration >
HP BAC Server Status
D.on the gateway and the Data Processing server navigate to \bin and activate the
HPBacServerStatus.exe program
ANSWER: C

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