2013年11月30日星期六

SNIA S10-101 exam pdf dumps

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Exam Code: S10-101
Exam Name: SNIA (Snia Storage Network Foundations Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 163 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 What is the maximum throughput of a 4 phy SAS wide port that has 3 Gbps links?
A.300 MBps
B.1200 MBps
C.1800 MBps
D.2400 MBps
Correct:D

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NO.2 From a business perspective a well managed archive is particularly important in which situation?
A.in the event of loss of power at the primary data center
B.when an administrator accidentally formats the wrong file system
C.in the event of litigation
D.when a user accidentally deletes an important email
Correct:C

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NO.3 You no longer have any port availability in the company's switch fabric. There is a
decommissioned switch available. When it is installed, there is a segmentation error. What is the
cause of the problem?
A.The wrong cable type was used to connect the switches.
B.The cable was connected into the wrong port on the target switch.
C.A duplicate zone name exists on the switch you are adding.
D.The domain priority is inconsistent.
Correct:C

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NO.4 Which is considered tier 2 storage in a datacenter with three (3) storage tiers?
A.tape vault
B.Fibre Channel disk array with dual controllers
C.Nearline storage
D.intelligent storage virtualization
Correct:C

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NO.5 Which two have World Wide Names? (Choose two.)
A.switches
B.disk arrays
C.zone sets
D.servers
E.HBAs
Correct:A E

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NO.6 Which hardware component provides the interface between the storage network and the server
backplane?
A.gigabit link module
B.interposer card
C.inter-switch link
D.host bus adapter
Correct:D

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NO.7 Which statement defines Serial-Attached SCSI (SAS) and SATA connectivity?
A.SAS storage devices can plug into SATA backplanes.
B.SATA storage devices can not plug into SAS backplanes.
C.SAS backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
D.SATA backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
Correct:C

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NO.8 Which two RAID types use parity for data protection? (Choose two.)
A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 3
D.RAID 5
E.RAID 10
Correct:C D

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NO.9 What is a common type of symmetric key ciphering when securing stored information?
A.DEC
B.AES
C.Turing
D.SSL
Correct:B

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NO.10 What is the function of the "head" on the disk drive?
A.It is used to read or write data onto the disk media.
B.It is used to seek to the area where the requested data is located.
C.It is where the data is stored or retrieved.
D.It is a standard unit of measurement on the disk media.
Correct:A

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NO.11 What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (Choose two.)
A.greater security exposure
B.lower cost infrastructure
C.can use existing network management tools
D.lower CPU overhead
Correct:B C

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NO.12 Which two are common characteristics of DAS? (Choose two.)
A.direct access to data is available from single server
B.only available through SCSI/SAS interfaces
C.storage capacity is captive to a single server
D.storage is accessible by any host anywhere on the network
E.attached to the host computer by a switch
Correct:A C

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NO.13 What is the maximum distance of a 50-micrometer multimode fiber with a 850nm shortwave
laser at 1 Gbps?
A.500 meters
B.300 meters
C.150 meters
D.70 meters
Correct:A

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NO.14 What might be considered the most important criteria when designing an OLTP implementation
for a financial services customer?
A.data integrity
B.data redundancy
C.disk latency of less than 15ms
D.high availability
Correct:A

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NO.15 What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (Choose two.)
A.Uses existing Ethernet technologies.
B.Supports up to 126 devices.
C.Lowers propagation delay.
D.Leverages system administrator knowledge.
Correct:A D

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NO.16 What describes RAID 0?
A.mirroring
B.parallel access with parity
C.striping
D.independent access with interleaved parity
Correct:C

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NO.17 Common enterprise tape cartridges such as LTO or DLT contain which components?
A.leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, access door
B.leader pin, read/write head assembly, supply reel, access door
C.leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, pickup reel
D.leader pin, read/write head assembly, supply reel, pickup reel
Correct:A

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NO.18 What is a characteristic of synchronous remote replication?
A.Source is minutes ahead of the remote replication.
B.Source buffers the data and sends it depending on a cycle time.
C.Source and remote replication always have identical data.
D.Synchronous replication only used for extended distances.
Correct:C

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NO.19 Which tier provides highest availability and highest performance?
A.tier 4
B.tier 3
C.tier 2
D.tier 1
Correct:D

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NO.20 What is the basic order of a snapshot creation process?
A.flush file system, take snapshot, backup the volume, release the application
B.flush file system, quiesce the application, take snapshot, backup the volume
C.quiesce the application, flush file system, take snapshot, backup the volume
D.flush file system, quiesce the application, flush the file system, take snapshot, backup the volume
Correct:C

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Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Given the following eight files in the current directory:
DOC doc doc1 doc11
doc12 doc13 doc2 doc3
What is the output of the command line:
echo doc[12]
A. doc1 doc11 doc12 doc13 doc2 doc3
B. doc1 doc11 doc12 doc2
C. doc1 doc2
D. doc[12]
Answer: C

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NO.2 The difference between the execution of a while loop and an until loop is that:
A. an until loop is guaranteed to execute at least once, whereas a while loop is not
B. an until loop executes in a subshell, whereas a while loop does not
C. an until loop executes as long as its condition clause exits with a failure code, whereas a while
loop executes as long as its condition succeeds
D. the condition of an until loop is evaluated at the bottom of the loop, whereas it is evaluated at
the top for a while loop
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the purpose of the following Bourne shell statement?
MAIL=/usr/peter/mymailbox
A. Incoming mail from other users will now be written to the file /usr/peter/mymailbox.
B. Outgoing mail will be recorded in the file /usr/peter/mymailbox.
C. The shell will check the file /usr/peter/mymailbox at specified intervals and alert the user when
new mail is written to the file.
D. Upon invocation, the mail command will set options that are specified in the file
/usr/peter/mymailbox.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Given the following script named sample:
# Sample script
echo $0
What is the output when it is invoked with the command line:
sample red green blue
A. red
B. red green blue
C. sample
D. sample red green blue
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the output of the following code:
set memo letter report note
shift 2
echo The parameter is $3
A. The parameter is letter
B. The parameter is report
C. The parameter is note
D. The parameter is
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement is LEAST likely to overwrite an existing file?
A. who > /tmp/tempfile
B. who > /tmp/tempfile$#
C. who > /tmp/tempfile$$
D. who > /tmp/tempfile$?
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is displayed at the end of the following code fragment?
COUNT=1
while [ $COUNT -gt 0 -a $COUNT -lt 5 ]
do
COUNT=expr $COUNT + 1
who | lp
sleep 300
done
echo "COUNT=$COUNT"
A. COUNT=4
B. COUNT=5
C. COUNT=6
D. The echo statement is not executed because of an infinite while loop.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement accurately describes a shell script?
A. Shell scripts are compiled prior to execution.
B. Shell scripts are files that contain Bourne shell commands and uncompiled C language
functions.
C. Shell scripts are text files which contain binary code.
D. Shell scripts are interpreted at the time of execution.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which statement DOES NOT describe an attribute of a valid shell variable name (identifier)?
A. It may contain both upper and lower case letters.
B. It may contain a maximum of 8 characters.
C. It may contain numbers and underscore characters.
D. It may begin with a letter.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Given that the current directory is NOT specified as part of your command search path, how can you execute mycommand if it exists in your current directory?
A. Enter ./mycommand
B. Enter .mycommand
C. Because the shell will look in the current directory for commands regardless of the PATH setting, enter mycommand
D. You cannot execute it until you reset the PATH variable to include the current directory.
Answer: A

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Exam Name: SCO (SCO OPENSERVER(TM) RELEASE 5 NETWORK ADMINISTRATION V30A1)
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NO.1 Which statement describes the effect of having the following .forward file in the home
directory of
the user cindy on the SCO OpenServer system fiji.xyz.org?
A. mail addressed to alison@guam.xyz.org will be forwarded to cindy@fiji.xyz.org
B. mail addressed to cindy@figi.xyz.org will be forwarded to alison@guam.xyz.org
C. mail addressed to alison@guam.xyz.org will be copied to cindy@fiji.xyz.org
D. mail addressed to cindy@figi.xyz.org will be copied to alison@guam.xyz.org
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement regarding Ethernet addresses is true?
A. The address is a unique 48-bit value.
B. The address value is configured in the /etc/hosts file.
C. A host discovers its own Ethernet address with the RARP protocol.
D. A host's Ethernet address does not change when it gets a new network interface card.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which program or protocol CANNOT be used to allow Windows users to execute SCO
OpenServer applications?
A. TermLite
B. XVision
C. VisionFS
D. TermVision
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement about the POP3 protocol is TRUE?
A. The POP3 daemon is started by default by inetd.
B. POP3 allows you to send and receive SCO OpenServer e-mail from a Windows client.
C. With POP3, mail messages are always removed from the server after they are read.
D. POP3 allows you to save e-mail to folders on the SCO OpenServer server.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which command, if run on an SCO OpenServer system with an IP address of 192.168.11.11,
would send packets onto the network?
A. ping 127.0.0.1
B. ping localhost
C. ping 192.168.11.11
D. None of these commands would send packets onto the network.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Your company has a Class C network address. Because of geographical considerations, you
want
to set up seven (7) subnets. What is the minimum number of subnet bits that will allow you to
have these seven (7) subnets?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.7 A Class B network has been subnetted so that it uses an 8-bit subnet address and an 8-bit host
address. Which of these netmask values is a correct choice for this network?
A. 0.0.255.255
B. 0.0.0.255
C. 255.255.0.0
D. 255.255.255.0
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which method CANNOT display a GUI interface for configuring the Netscape web servers on
the
SCO OpenServer system called webserver?
A. Enter the SCO OpenServer /usr/internet/ns_httpd/start-admin command
B. Select Netscape Server Admin from SCOadmin
C. From the system webserver, run Netscape Navigator, and go to the URL http://webserver:620
D. From an authorized system on your network, run a web browser, and go to the URL
http://webserver:620
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which file is used to configure outbound Morning Star PPP connections?
A. /usr/lib/mstppp/Autostart
B. /etc/hosts
C. /usr/lib/mstppp/ppphosts
D. /usr/lib/ppp/hosts
Answer: A

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NO.10 How many octets are reserved for the HOST portion of a Class A IP address (with no subnets)?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.1 The following SAS program is submitted: data new (bufsize = 6144 bufno = 4); set old; run; Which one
of the following describes the difference between the usage of BUFSIZE= and BUFNO= options?
A. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the input buffer in bytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of input
buffers.
B. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in bytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of output
buffers.
C. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in kilobytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of input
buffers.
D. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in kilobytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of output
buffers.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO YEAR QTR BUDGET YEAR QTR SALES
2001 3 500 2001 4 300 2001 4 400 2002 1 600 ] 2002 1 700 The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql; select one.*, sales from one, two
where one.year = two.year; quit; Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
B. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 . 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
C. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 300 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
D. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 300 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 300 2001 3 500 600 2001 4 400 600 2002 1 700 600
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statement(s) in the DATASETS procedure alters the name of a SAS data set
stored in a SAS data library?
A. RENAME statement only
B. CHANGE statement only
C. MODIFY and RENAME statements
D. MODIFY and CHANGE statements
Answer: B

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NO.4 Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO: ONE TWO NUM COUNTRY NUM CITY
______________ ______________
1 CANADA 3
BERLIN
2
FRANCE 5
TOKYO
3 GERMANY 4 BELGIUM
5 JAPAN
The following SAS program is submitted: proc sql; select country from one where not exists
(select * from two where one.num = two.num); quit; Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. COUNTRY
GERMANY JAPAN
B. COUNTRY FRANCE BELGIUM
C. COUNTRY
CANADA FRANCE BELGIUM
D. COUNTRY
CANADA FRANCE GERMANY
Answer: C

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NO.5 Consider the following SAS log: 229 data sasuser.ranch sasuser.condo / view = sasuser.ranch;
230 set sasuser.houses; 231 if style = 'RANCH' then output sasuser.ranch; 232 else if style = 'CONDO'
then output sasuser.condo; 233 run; NOTE: DATA STEP view saved on file SASUSER.RANCH. NOTE: A
stored DATA STEP view cannot run under a different operating system. 234 235 proc print data =
sasuser.condo; ERROR: File SASUSER.CONDO.DATA does not exist. 236 run; NOTE: The SAS System
stopped processing this step because of errors. Which one of the following explains why the PRINT
procedure fails?
A. SASUSER.CONDO is a stored DATA step program.
B. A SAS data file and SAS data view cannot be created in the same DATA step.
C. A second VIEW=SASUSER.CONDO option was omitted on the DATA statement.
D. The view SASUSER.RANCH must be processed before SASUSER.CONDO is created.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO: ONE TWO YEAR QTR BUDGET YEAR QTR
SALES
2001 3 500 2001 4 300 2001 4 400 2002 1 600 2002 1 700
The following SAS program is submitted: proc sql; select one.*, sales from one, two; quit; Which one of
the following reports is generated?
A. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
B. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 . 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
C. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 300 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
D. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 300 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 300 2001 3 500 600 2001 4 400 600 2002 1 700 600
Answer: D

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NO.7 The following SAS program is submitted: <insert statement here>; %let development = ontime; proc
print data = sasuser.highway; title "For &dept"; title2 "This project was completed &development"; run;
Which one of the following statements completes the above and resolves title1 to "For
research&development"?
A. %let dept = %str(research&development);
B. %let dept = %str(research%&development);
C. %let dept = %nrstr(research&development);
D. %let dept = %nrstr(research%&development);
Answer: C

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NO.8 The following SAS program is submitted: %let value = 9; %let value2 = 5; %let newval = %eval(&value
/ &value2); Which one of the following is the resulting value of the macro variable NEWVAL?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 1.8
D. null
Answer:A

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NO.9 Given the following SAS data set ONE: ONE REP COST
SMITH
200
SMITH
400
JONES
100
SMITH 600
JONES
100
JONES
200
JONES
400
SMITH
800
JONES
100
JONES 300
The following SAS program is submitted: proc sql; select rep, avg(cost) as AVERAGE from one group by
rep having avg(cost) > (select avg(cost) from one); quit; Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. REP AVERAGE
JONES 200
B. REP AVERAGE
JONES 320
C. REP AVERAGE
SMITH 320
D. REP AVERAGE
SMITH 500
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which one of the following is an advantage of creating and using a SAS DATA step view?
A. It can store an index.
B. It always accesses the most current data.
C. It works quickly through multiple passes of the data.
D. It is useful when the underlying data file structure changes.
Answer: B

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NO.11 The following SAS code is submitted: %macro houses(dsn = houses,sub = RANCH); data &dsn; set
sasuser.houses; if style = "&sub"; run; %mend; %houses(sub = SPLIT)
%houses(dsn = ranch) %houses(sub = TWOSTORY) Which one of the following is the value of the
automatic macro variable SYSLAST?
A. work.ranch
B. work.houses
C. WORK.RANCH
D. WORK.HOUSES
Answer: D

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NO.12 The SAS data set TEMP has the following distribution of values for variable A: A Frequency 1 500,000
2 500,000 6 7,000,000
3,000 Which one of the following SAS programs requires the least CPU time to be processed?
A. data new; set temp; if a = 8 then b = 'Small '; else if a in(1, 2) then b = 'Medium'; else if a = 6 then b =
'Large'; run;
B. data new; set temp; if a in (1, 2) then b = 'Medium'; else if a = 8 then b = 'Small'; else if a = 6 then b =
'Large'; run;
C. data new; set temp; if a = 6 then b = 'Large '; else if a in (1, 2) then b = 'Medium'; else if a = 8 then b =
'Small';
D. data new; set temp; if a = 6 then b = 'Large ';
if a in (1, 2) then b = 'Small'; run;
Answer: C

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NO.13 Given the following SAS statement: %let idcode = Prod567; Which one of the following statements
stores the value 567 in the macro variable CODENUM?
A. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-2);
B. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-3);
C. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-2);
D. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-3);
Answer: C

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NO.14 Given the following SAS data set ONE: ONE NUM VAR
1. 2 B 3C Which one of the following SQL programs deletes the SAS data set ONE?
A. proc sql; delete table one; quit;
B. proc sql; alter table one drop num, var; quit;
C. proc sql; drop table one; quit;
D. proc sql; delete from one; quit;
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which one of the following options controls the pagesize of a SAS data set?
A. SIZE=
B. BUFNO=
C. BUFSIZE=
D. PAGESIZE=
Answer: C

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NO.16 The following SAS program is submitted: data one; do i = 1 to 10; ptobs = ceil(ranuni(0) * totobs); set
temp point = ptobs nobs = totobs; output; end; stop; run; The SAS data set TEMP contains 2,500,000
observations. Which one of the following represents the possible values for PTOBS?
A. any integer between 1 and 10
B. any real number between 0 and 1
C. any integer between 1 and 2,500,000
D. any real number between 1 and 2,500,000
Answer: C

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NO.17 The variable attributes of SAS data sets ONE and TWO are shown below: ONE TWO # Variable Type
Len Pos # Variable Type Len Pos 2 sales Num 8 8 2 budget Num 8 8 1 year Num 8 0 3 sales Char 8 16 1
year Num 8 0 Data set ONE contains 100 observations. Data set TWO contains 50 observations. Both
data sets are sorted by the variable YEAR. The following SAS program is submitted: data three;
merge one two; by year; run; Which one of the following is the result of the program execution?
A. No messages are written to the SAS log.
B. ERROR and WARNING messages are written to the SAS log.
C. Data set THREE is created with two variables and 50 observations.
D. Data set THREE is created with three variables and 100 observations.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which one of the following statements is true?
A. The WHERE statement can be executed conditionally as part of an IF statement.
B. The WHERE statement selects observations before they are brought into the PDV.
C. The subsetting IF statement works on observations before they are read into the PDV.
D. The WHERE and subsetting IF statements can be used interchangeably in all SAS programs.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which one of the following programs contains a syntax error?
A. proc sql; select product.*, cost.unitcost, sales.quantity
from product p, cost c, sales s where p.item = c.item and p.item = s.item; quit;
B. proc sql; select product.*, cost.unitcost, sales.quantity from product, cost, sales where product.item =
cost.item and product.item = sales.item; quit;
C. proc sql; select p.*, c.unitcost, s.quantity from product as p, cost as c, sales as s where p.item = c.item
and p.item = s.item; quit;
D. proc sql; select p.*, c.unitcost, s.quantity from product, cost, sales where product.item = cost.item and
product.item = sales.item; quit;
Answer: D

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NO.20 The following SAS program is submitted: proc sort data = sales tagsort; by month year; run; Which of
the following resource(s) is the TAGSORT option reducing?
A. I/O usage only
B. CPU usage only
C. I/O and CPU usage
D. temporary disk usage
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 3X0-103
Exam Name: SAIR (Linux Networking (Level 1) )
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Total Q&A: 159 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Which of the following host IP addresses are on networks normally reserved for intranets? (Choose
three.)
A. 10.1.220.1
B. 12.1.2.4
C. 172.16.0.30
D. 192.168.0.18
E. 187.10.30.200
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 You wish to communicate with hosts on your wide-area network. Which of the following is the exact
sequence of commands used to manually configure an Ethernet interface, assuming driver modules
are not loaded?
A. lsmod, insmod, ifconfig
B. insmod, ifconfig, route
C. lsmod, rmmod, insmod, ifconfig
D. ifconfig, route
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is TRUE concerning the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)?
A. It binds a physical address to a broadcast address.
B. It binds a MAC (Media Access Control) address to a logical address.
C. It binds a logical address to an IP address.
D. It binds a MAC (Media Access Control) address to a physical address.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which Resource Record allows the redirecting of mail to another host, assuming the correct
accounts exist?
A. TXT
B. PTR
C. SOA
D. MAIL
E. MX
Answer: E

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NO.5 For a Class C network, which of the following denotes a valid host address on the 192.168.3.0
network?
A. 192.168.3.255
B. 192.168.3.1
C. 192.168.3.0
D. 192.168.3.256
Answer: B

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NO.6 If a machine has an IP address of 192.168.1.61 and the netmask is 255.255.255.0, what is its subnet
address?
A. 192.0.0.0
B. 192.168.0.0
C. 192.168.1.0
D. 0.0.0.61
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following can tunneling be used for?
A. It can connect two IPX networks separated by some different network.
B. It can connect two IPv4 networks separated by some different network.
C. It can provide mobile IP support and amateur radio support.
D. It can connect two IPv6 networks separated by some different network.
E. All of the above.
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which of the following are TRUE about buffer size? (Choose two.)
A. A large buffer can lead to wasted system memory.
B. A small buffer can lead to slower data transfer lines.
C. Having a small buffer will free system memory, allocating fewer registers.
D. The larger the buffer, the faster the transfer rate, reducing time arrival jitter.
Answer: AB

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NO.9 Typical implementations of ping use the _____ to send echo requests to other hosts.
A. Internet Protocol (IP)
B. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
C. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
D. Transport Control Protocol (TCP)
Answer: B

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NO.10 inetd is responsible for waiting for new network requests and authenticating users based on the
contents of the "inetd.conf" file.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following commands will allow you to view the ARP table when the configured name
server is not functioning? (Choose the best answer.)
A. arp -v
B. arp -a
C. arp -n
D. arp -s
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following subnet masks is usually associated with a Class A IP address?
A. 255.255.0.0
B. 255.255.255.0
C. 255.0.0.0
D. 255.255.255.255
Answer: C

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NO.13 A default policy of DENY and ACCEPT may be implemented for a system's ipchains. Which of the
following options will change the default input policy to DENY?
A. ipchains -a input DENY
B. ipchains -a output DENY
C. ipchains -P input DENY
D. ipchains -all input DENY
E. ipchains -input DENY
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following statements is TRUE about the subnet mask?
A. Another name for the subnet mask is the subnet address.
B. In the subnet mask, zeros represent the host ID and ones represent the network ID.
C. In the subnet mask, ones represent the host ID and zeros represent the network ID.
D. The subnet mask is used to aid in name resolution for root name servers.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Because of flow control, UDP will generally lead to network congestion, while TCP helps prevent
congestion.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following is FALSE concerning TCP, IP, and UDP? (Select the best answer.)
A. Transport Control Protocol (TCP) supports unicast addressing.
B. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) supports unicast addressing.
C. TCP supports multicasting.
D. UDP supports multicasting.
E. Internet Protocol (IP) supports multicasting.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following can you do with the "ping" command? (Choose two.)
A. Determine if a remote host can be contacted.
B. Create and modify (n)x-u NIS network maps.
C. View the MAC address of a given host.
D. Display the route along which an IP packet travels.
Answer: AD

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NO.18 Which path accurately depicts a three-way handshake between Network X and Network Y for
establishing a TCP connection? (Select the best answer.)
A. X sends SYN to Y; Y sends SYN to X; X sends ACK to Y
B. X sends SYN to Y; Y sends two SYNs to X; X sends ACK to Y
C. X sends ACK to Y; Y sends SYN to X ; X sends ACK to Y
D. X sends SYN to Y; Y sends ACK to X ; X sends ACK to Y
E. X sends ACK to Y; Y sends SYN and ACK to X; X sends ACK to Y
Answer: D

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NO.19 Assume that a software company has a subnet address 192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0. How many
possible hosts can this subnet support, and what is the network address for the subnet?
A. 64; 192.168.1.255
B. 254; 192.168.1.0
C. 255; 192.168.1.0
D. 256; 192.168.1.255
E. 128; 192.168.1.1
Answer: B

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NO.20 Telnet was developed as a continuation of what other communications program developed for
ARPANET? (Select the best answer.)
A. rpc
B. tele
C. login
D. ftp
E. mutt
F. None of the above
Answer: D

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Exam Code: RH-302
Exam Name: RedHat (Red Hat Certified Engineer on Redhat Enterprise Linux 5 (Labs))
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Total Q&A: 330 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 The System you are using is for NFS (Network File Services). Some important data are shared from
your system. Make automatically start the nfs and portmap services at boot time.
Answer and Explanation:
We can control the services for current session and for next boot time also. For current Session, we use
service servicename start or restart or stop or status. For automatically on next reboot time:
1. chkconfig servicename on or off
eg: chkconfig nfs on
chkconfig portmap on
or
ntsysv
Select the nfs and portmap services.
2. Reboot the system and identify whether services are running or not.

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NO.2 Write:

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NO.3 Create the partition having 100MB size and mount it on /mnt/neo
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda-> To create new partition.
2. Type n-> For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.

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NO.4 You are giving RHCT Exam and in your Exam paper there is a written, make successfully ping to
192.168.0.254.
Answer and Explanation:
In Network problem thinks to check:
1. IP Configuration: use ifconfig command either IP is assigned to interface or not?
2. Default Gateway is set or not?
3. Hostname is set or not?
4. Routing problem is there?
5. Device Driver Module is loaded or not?
6. Device is activated or not?
Check In this way:
1. use ifconfig command and identify which IP is assigned or not.
2. cat /etc/sysconfig/network What, What is written here. Actually here are these parameters.
NETWORKING=yes or no
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
HOSTNAME=?
NISDOMAIN=?
- Correct the file
3. Use vi /etc/sysconfig/network-scirpts/ifcfg-eth0 and check the proper options
DEVICE=eth0
ONBOOT=yes
BOOTPROTO=static
IPADDR=x.x.x.x
NETMAKS=x.x.x.x
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
4. Use service network restart or start command

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NO.5 Use mkfs -t ext3 /dev/hda? Where ? is your partition number

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NO.6 mkdir /mnt/neo

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NO.7 Or

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NO.8 Change the root Password to redtophat
Answer and Explanation:
1. Boot the system in Single user mode

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NO.9 Type the Size: +100M-> You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.

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NO.10 mke2fs -j /dev/hda? To create ext3 filesystem.

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NO.11 Verify by mounting on current Sessions also:

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NO.12 mount /dev/hda? /mnt/neo
4. Your System is going use as a router for 172.24.0.0/16 and 172.25.0.0/16. Enable the
IP Forwarding.
Answer and Explanation:
1. echo "1" >/proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
2. vi /etc/sysctl.conf
net.ipv4.ip_forward=1
/proc is the virtual filesystem, containing the information about the running kernel. To change the
parameter of running kernel you should modify on /proc. From Next reboot the system, kernel will take the
value from /etc/sysctl.conf.
5. Some users home directory is shared from your system. Using showmount -e localhost command, the
shared directory is not shown. Make access the shared users home directory.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Verify the File whether Shared or not ? : cat /etc/exports
2. Start the nfs service: service nfs start
3. Start the portmap service: service portmap start
4. Make automatically start the nfs service on next reboot: chkconfig nfs on
5. Make automatically start the portmap service on next reboot: chkconfig portmap on
6. Verify either sharing or not: showmount -e localhost
7. Check that default firewall is running on system ? if running flush the iptables using iptables -F and stop
the iptables service.
6. neo user tried by:
dd if=/dev/zero of=/home/neo/somefile bs=1024 count=70
files created successfully. Again neo tried to create file having 70K using following command:
dd if=/dev/zero of=/home/neo/somefile bs=1024 count=70
But he is unable to create the file. Make the user can create the file less then 70K.
Answer and Explanation:
Very Tricky from redhat. Actually is giving scenario to you to implement quota to neo user. You should
apply the quota to neo user on /home that neo user shouldn't occupied space more than 70K.
1. vi /etc/fstab
LABEL=/home /home ext3 defaults,usrquota 0 0
To enable the quota on filesystem you should mount the filesystem with usrquota for user quota and
grpquota for group quota.
2. touch /home/aquota.user ->Creating blank quota database file.
3. mount -o remount /home-> Remounting the /home with updated mount options.
You can verify that /home is mounted with usrquota options or not using mount command.
4. quotacheck -u /home ->Initialization the quota on /home
5. edquota -u neo /home-> Quota Policy editor
See the snapshot
Disk quotas for user neo (uid 500):
Filesystem blocks soft hard inodes soft hard
/dev/mapper/vo-myvol 2 30 70 1 0 0
Can you set the hard limit 70 and soft limit as you think like 30.
Verify using the repquota /home command.
7. One Logical Volume is created named as myvol under vo volume group and is mounted. The Initial
Size of that Logical Volume is 124MB. Make successfully that the size of Logical Volume 245MB without
losing any data. The size of logical volume 240MB to 255MB will be acceptable.
Answer and Explanation:
1. First check the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vo/myvol
2. Increase the Size of Logical Volume: lvextend -L+121M /dev/vo/myvol
3. Make Available the size on online: resize2fs /dev/vo/myvol
4. Verify the Size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vo/myvol
5. Verify that the size comes in online or not: df -h
We can extend the size of logical Volume using the lvextend command. As well as to decrease the size of
Logical Volume, use the lvresize command. In LVM v2 we can extend the size of Logical Volume without
unmount as well as we can bring the actual size of Logical Volume on online using ext2online command.
8. Quota is implemented on /data but not working properly. Find out the Problem and implement the quota
to user1 to have a soft limit 60 inodes (files) and hard limit of 70 inodes (files).
Answer and Explanation:
Quotas are used to limit a user's or a group of users' ability to consume disk space. This prevents a small
group of users from monopolizing disk capacity and potentially interfering with other users or the entire
system. Disk quotas are commonly used by ISPs, by Web hosting companies, on FTP sites, and on
corporate file servers to ensure continued availability of their systems.
Without quotas, one or more users can upload files on an FTP server to the point of filling a filesystem.
Once the affected partition is full, other users are effectively denied upload access to the disk. This is also
a reason to mount different filesystem directories on different partitions. For example, if you only had
partitions for your root (/) directory and swap space, someone uploading to your computer could fill up all
of the space in your root directory (/). Without at least a little free space in the root directory (/), your
system could become unstable or even crash.
You have two ways to set quotas for users. You can limit users by inodes or by kilobytesized disk blocks.
Every Linux file requires an inode. Therefore, you can limit users by the number of files or by absolute
space. You can set up different quotas for different filesystems. For example, you can set different quotas
for users on the /home and /tmp directories if they are mounted on their own partitions.
Limits on disk blocks restrict the amount of disk space available to a user on your system.
Older versions of Red Hat Linux included LinuxConf, which included a graphical tool to configure quotas.
As of this writing, Red Hat no longer has a graphical quota configuration tool. Today, you can configure
quotas on RHEL only through the command line interface.
1. vi /etc/fstab /dev/hda11 /data ext3 defaults,usrquota 1 2
2. Either Reboot the System or remount the partition.
Mount -o remount /dev/hda11 /data
3. touch /data/aquota.user
4. quotacheck -ufm /data
5. quotaon -u /data
6. edquota -u user1 /data and Specified the Soft limit and hard limit on opened file.
To verify either quota is working or not:
Soft limit specify the limit to generate warnings to users and hard limit can't cross by the user. Use the
quota command or repquota command to monitor the quota information.
9. One Logical Volume named lv1 is created under vg0. The Initial Size of that Logical Volume is 100MB.
Now you required the size 500MB. Make successfully the size of that Logical Volume 500M without losing
any data. As well as size should be increased online.
Answer and Explanation:
The LVM system organizes hard disks into Logical Volume (LV) groups. Essentially,physical hard disk
partitions (or possibly RAID arrays) are set up in a bunch of equalRH302 sized chunks known as Physical
Extents (PE). As there are several other concepts associated with the LVM system, let's start with some
basic definitions:
. Physical Volume (PV) is the standard partition that you add to the LVM mix.
Normally, a physical volume is a standard primary or logical partition. It can also be a RAID array.
. Physical Extent (PE) is a chunk of disk space. Every PV is divided into a number of equal sized PEs.
Every PE in a LV group is the same size. Different LV groups can have different sized PEs.
. Logical Extent (LE) is also a chunk of disk space. Every LE is mapped to a specific PE.
. Logical Volume (LV) is composed of a group of LEs. You can mount a filesystem such as /home and /var
on an LV.
. Volume Group (VG) is composed of a group of LVs. It is the organizational group for LVM. Most of the
commands that you'll use apply to a specific VG.
1. Verify the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vg0/lv1
2. Verify the Size on mounted directory: df -h or df -h mounted directory name
3. Use : lvextend -L+400M /dev/vg0/lv1
4. resize2fs /dev/vg0/lv1 to bring extended size online.
5. Again Verify using lvdisplay and df -h command.
10. Create one partitions having size 100MB and mount it on /data.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda ->To create new partition.
2. Type n-> For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M ->You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.
7. Press w to write on partitions table.
8. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.
9. Use mkfs -t ext3 /dev/hda?
Or
mke2fs -j /dev/hda? To create ext3 filesystem.
10. vi /etc/fstab
Write:
/dev/hda? /data ext3 defaults 1 2
11. Verify by mounting on current Sessions also:
mount /dev/hda? /data
11. You are new System Administrator and from now you are going to handle the system and your main
task is Network monitoring, Backup and Restore. But you don't know the root password. Change the root
password to redhat and login in default Runlevel.
Answer and Explanation:
When you Boot the System, it starts on default Runlevel specified in /etc/inittab:
Id:?:initdefault:
When System Successfully boot, it will ask for username and password. But you don't know the root's
password. To change the root password you need to boot the system into single user mode. You can pass
the kernel arguments from the boot loader.
1. Restart the System.
2. You will get the boot loader GRUB screen.
3. Press a and type 1 or s for single mode
ro root=LABEL=/ rhgb queit s
4. System will boot on Single User mode.
5. Use passwd command to change.
6. Press ctrl+d
12. There are more then 400 Computers in your Office. You are appointed as a System Administrator. But
you don't have Router. So, you are going to use your One Linux Server as a Router. How will you enable
IP packets forward?
Answer and Explanation:
1. /proc is the virtual filesystem, we use /proc to modify the kernel parameters at running time.
# echo "1" >/proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
2. /etc/sysctl.conf when System Reboot on next time, /etc/rc.d/rc.sysinit scripts reads the file
/etc/sysctl.conf.-> To enable the IP forwarding on next reboot also you need to set the parameter.
net.ipv4.ip_forward=1
Here 0 means disable, 1 means enable.
13. You Completely Install the Redhat Enterprise Linux 5 on your System. While start the system, it's
giving error to load X window System. How will you fix that problem and make boot successfully run X
Window System.
Answer and Explanation:
Think while Problems occurred on booting System on Runlevel 5 (X Window)
1. /tmp is full or not
2. Quota is already reached
3. Video card or resolution or monitor is misconfigured.
4. xfs service is running or not.
Do These:
1. df -h /tmp /tmp is full remove the unnecessary file
2. quota username if quota is already reached remove unnecessary file from home directory.
3. Boot the System in runlevel 3. you can pass the Kernel Argument from boot loader.
4. Use command: system-config-display It will display a dialog to configure the monitor, Video card,
resolution etc.
5. Set the Default Runlevel 5 in /etc/inittab
id:5:initdefault:
6. Reboot the System you will get the GUI login Screen.
14. There are two different networks, 192.168.0.0/24 and 192.168.1.0/24. Your System is in
192.168.0.0/24 Network. One RHEL 5 Installed System is going to use as a Router. All required
configuration is already done on Linux Server. Where 192.168.0.254 and 192.168.1.254 IP Address
are assigned on that Server. How will make successfully ping to 192.168.1.0/24 Network's Host?
Answer and Explanation:
1. vi /etc/sysconfig/network
GATEWAY=192.168.0.254
OR
vi /etc/sysconf/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth0
DEVICE=eth0
BOOTPROTO=static
ONBOOT=yes
IPADDR=192.168.0.?
NETMASK=255.255.255.0
GATEWAY=192.168.0.254
2. service network restart
Explanation: Gateway defines the way to exit the packets. According to System working as a router for
two networks have IP Address 192.168.0.254 and 192.168.1.254.
To get the hosts on 192.168.1.0/24 should go through 192.168.0.254.
15. Make a swap partition having 100MB. Make Automatically Usable at System Boot Time.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda ->To create new partition.
2. Type n-> For New partition
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M ->You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name. Default System ID is 83 that
means Linux Native.
7. Type t to change the System ID of partition.
8. Type Partition Number
9. Type 82 that means Linux Swap.
10. Press w to write on partitions table.
11. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.
12. mkswap /dev/hda? ->To create Swap File system on partition.
13. swapon /dev/hda? ->To enable the Swap space from partition.
14. free -m ->Verify Either Swap is enabled or not.
15. vi /etc/fstab
/dev/hda? swap swap defaults 0 0
16. Reboot the System and verify that swap is automatically enabled or not.
16. You are a System administrator. Using Log files very easy to monitor the system.
Now there are 50 servers running as Mail, Web, Proxy, DNS services etc. You want to centralize the logs
from all servers into on LOG Server. How will you configure the LOG Server to accept logs from remote
host ?
Answer and Explanation:
By Default system accept the logs only generated from local host. To accept the Log from other host
configure:
1. vi /etc/sysconfig/syslog
SYSLOGD_OPTIONS="-m 0 -r"
Where
-m 0 disables 'MARK' messages.
-r enables logging from remote machines
-x disables DNS lookups on messages recieved with -r
2. service syslog restart
17. You are giving the debug RHCT exam. The examiner told you that the password of root is redhat.
When you tried to login displays the error message and redisplayed the login screen. You changed the
root password, again unable to login as a root.
How will you make Successfully Login as a root.
Answer and Explanation:
When root unable to login into the system think:
1. Is password correct?
2. Is account expired?
3. Is terminal Blocked?
Do these Steps:
. Boot the System on Single user mode.
. Change the password
. Check the account expire date by using chage -l root command.
If account is expired, set net expire date: chage -E "NEVER" root
1. Check the file /etc/securetty Which file blocked to root login from certain terminal.
2. If terminal is deleted or commented write new or uncomment.
3. Reboot the system and login as a root.

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NO.13 Set the Hostname station?.example.com where ? is your Host IP Address.
Answer and Explanation:
1. hostname station?.example.com This will set the host name only for current session. To set hostname
permanently.
2. vi /etc/sysconfig/network
HOSTNAME=station?.example.com
3. service network restart

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NO.14 vi /etc/fstab

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NO.15 Either Reboot or use partprobe command.

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NO.16 Press w to write on partitions table.

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NO.17 Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.

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NO.18 Use the passwd command
2. Dig Server1.example.com, Resolve to successfully through DNS Where DNS server is 172.24.254.254
Answer and Explanation:
#vi /etc/resolv.conf
nameserver 172.24.254.254
#dig server1.example.com
#host server1.example.com
DNS is the Domain Name System, which maintains a database that can help your computer translate
domain names such as www.Redhat.com to IP addresses such as 216.148.218.197. As no individual
DNS server is large enough to keep a database for the entire Internet, they can refer requests to other
DNS servers.
DNS is based on the named daemon, which is built on the BIND (Berkeley Internet Name Domain)
package developed through the Internet Software Consortium Users wants to access by name so DNS
will interpret the name into ip address. You need to specify the Address if DNS server in each and every
client machine. In Redhat Enterprise Linux, you need to specify the DNS server into /etc/resolv.conf file.
After Specifying the DNS server address, you can verify using host, dig and nslookup commands.

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NO.19 It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.

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NO.20 /dev/hda? /mnt/neo ext3 defaults 1 2

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NO.1 How is noise measured?
A.Volume
B.Distance
C.Amplitude
D.Impedance
Answer: AC

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NO.2 Which of the following are Call Establishment packets? (Select three of the following options.)
A.Receiver Ready
B.Disconnect Request
C.Release Request
D.Setup
E.Connect Acknowledged
F.Receiver Not Ready
G.Alerting
H.Release Complete
Answer: DEG

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NO.3 Which of the following describes audio analog clipping?
A.A distorted signal voltage from a microphone after passing through an amplifier with excessive gain
applied.
B.An accurate signal voltage from a microphone after passing through an amplifier without any gain
applied.
C.Audio amplifiers with too high an impedance.
D.A clean signal passed through an Audio amplifier with excessive AC line voltage.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is the Protocol RAS used by the H.323 Gatekeeper?
A.Registration, Alerting, and Status of H.323 Terminals
B.Registration, Access, and Status of H.323 Terminals
C.Registration, Activation, and Status of H.323 Terminals
D.Registration, Admission, and Status of H.323 Terminals
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following correctly describes typical audio phantom power?
A.48 volts DC applied to a telephone circuit center pair used to provide power to the telephone set
B.12 volts DC applied to the tip and ring of a TRS connector used to power amplified headphones
C.A DC voltage applied to the center pin of an RCA type connector used to power remote pre-amplifiers
D.A DC voltage applied to pins 2 and 3 of an XLR connector returning through pin 1, used to power
microphones
Answer: D

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NO.6 Local Area Network Metallic Interfaces are
A.connection oriented, point to point connectivity only.
B.unshared network that serves unlimited endpoints.
C.connectionless oriented connectivity, shared network that serves limited distances.
D.connectionless oriented connectivity, shared network that serves unlimited distances.
E.C and D
F.All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.7 Pick the best match; Audio "Critical Distance" is a definition that relates to:
A.Distance between the audio amplifier inputs and room microphone
B.Distance between the person speaking and the microphone used
C.Distance between the video display monitor and camera
D.Distance between the walls, floor to ceiling, and doorways
Answer: B

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NO.8 When required, improperly matched impedance will cause problems with__________.
A.Audio signal levels
B.feedback frequency filtering
C.room acoustics
D.all of the above
Answer: A

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NO.9 High Definition Video is best described as
A.Video Signal that consists of luminance scan interlaced lines.
B.Video Signal made up of 8X8 blocks of pixels.
C.Video signal that represents 720 lines of pixels, progressively scanned.
D.Video Signal made up of 40X40 macroblocks pixels.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Multiplexers using HSD interfaces are DCE Interfaces that provide which three signals?
A.Transmit Data
B.Receive Data
C.Request to Send
D.Data Carrier Detect (RLSD)
E.TX Clock and TX Data
F.TX Clock and RX Clock
Answer: BDF

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NO.11 Which audio coding uses 8 Kbps?
A.G.711
B.G.722
C.G.729
D.G.728
E.G.722.1
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following describes the activity for which a RTCP is used?
A.Transport Task for Communication of Audio and Video over IP
B.Transport Task of Simple Network Management Protocol
C.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Videoconferencing Hardware
D.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Routers
E.Network Statistics of Media Channels between Gatekeepers
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which audio coding standards are described by H.323?
A.G.711, G.721, G.722, and G.723
B.G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.726
C.G.711, G.722, G.728, G.723.1, and G.729
D.G.711, G.722, G.728, and G.723.1
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following functions can NOT be performed by a microphone mixer?
A. Provide phantom power to microphones.
B. Provide gain to convert mic-level signals to line-level signals.
C. Provide a means to adjust the relative gain of different microphones.
D. Provide a means to adjust the video display brightness.
E. Provide a means to adjust the room acoustics
Answer: DE

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NO.15 The term "Full Motion Video" typically refers to a transmission of video at which rate?
A.Video Frames at a rate of less than 10 per second
B.Video Frames at a rate of greater than 100 per second
C.Video Frames at a rate of less than 24 per second
D.Video Frames at a rate of 24 or more per second
Answer: D

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NO.16 A telephone call over the Public Switched Telephone Network is what type of quality?
A.Narrow band audio
B.Center band audio
C.Wide band audio
D.CD quality audio
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following is the channel used to carry the Audio for H.320 Terminals?
A.Channel 6
B.Channel 4
C.Channel 3
D.Channel 2
E.Channel 1
Answer: E

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NO.18 What are two other names for a Frame Relay Network?
A.RS-232
B.V.35
C.Broadband
D.Virtual Private Network
E.802.3 Medium Access Control Network
Answer: CD

Polycom   1K0-002   1K0-002   1K0-002 questions   1K0-002 questions

NO.19 E1 framing has a bit structure of how many bits per frame?
Clue Full metallic E1 speed divided by 8KHz Stratum timing.
A.200
B.240
C.256
D.300
Answer: C

Polycom braindump   1K0-002 pdf   1K0-002

NO.20 Which of the following is Line Coding used for Primary Rate T1?
A.BRTZ-AMI
B.B7S
C.HDB3
D.B8ZS
E.Pulse Stuffing
Answer: D

Polycom test   1K0-002 test questions   1K0-002   Braindumps 1K0-002

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