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Exam Code: HP0-M38
Exam Name: HP (Managing HP Storage Essentials (SRM) 6.x Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Which tool can you use to verify SNIA libraries on a server?
A. HP SMH
B. Server System Requirements wizard
C. CIM Extension Installer
D. hbatest
Answer: D

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NO.2 Using Storage Essentials, you discover a customer's SAN switches, storage arrays, tape and libraries.
What must you do next to implement Backup Manager?
A. Install the corresponding SMI-S provider on the backup server.
B. Discover hosts.
C. Discover applications.
D. Install the corresponding CIM extension on the backup manager hosts.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What do you use to calculate File System Viewer licenses?
A. host MAPS
B. NAS capacity (RAW) in managed TB
C. total array capacity in managed TB
D. scanned space (file sizes) in TB
E. managed host files system (volume) in TB
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which parameter should be specified in the cim.extensions.parameters file to enable the CIM extension
to listen on a specific network card?
A. -port
B. -on
C. -mgmtServerIP
D. -nic
Answer: B

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NO.5 What must you do if a managed EVA becomes managed by the passive CommandView EVA server?
A. Run a Get Details
B. Run Update Element Data
C. Manage CIM Extensions
D. Enable Troubleshooting Mode
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-Y35
Exam Name: HP (Wireless Networks - ASE 2011 Delta Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Given an HP A5800 switch that is in its factory default configuration, what happens after the
following command sequence? (Note: There is no save command.) system-view irf member 1
renumber 2 quit reboot
A. The IRF member ID will be 1.
B. The IRF member ID will be 2.
C. The IRF member ID will be assigned dynamically.
D. The IRF member ID will be "unknown."
Answer: B

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
A network administrator is managing an HP A-Series Wireless Access Controller at the command
line interface (CLI). The administrator issues a command to view the contents of the controller
flash directory. Looking at the output, which access point models can the controller boot and
command to view the contents of the controller? flash directory. Looking at the output, which
access point models can the controller boot and manage? (Select two.)
A. HP WA2220-AG
B. HP WA2612-AGN
C. HP WA2620-AGN
D. HP WA2610E-AGN
E. HP WA2620E-AGN
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
When IRF with Distributed Link Aggregation is implemented at all layers of a LAN (Core,
Aggregation, and Access), which protocols can be replaced by IRF functions? (Select two.)
A. MSTP
B. LACP
C. BFD
D. NSF/GR
E. VRRP
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 You have been asked to deploy a guest wireless service within an A-Series solution in the
reception area of a marketing firm. The clients associated with the guest service should be
assigned to VLAN 10. In which view do you assign the VLAN to the wireless service?
A. System view
B. Service Template view
C. VLAN Interface view
D. ESS Interface view
Answer: D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
You have recently upgraded the Comware of an HP A-Series Access Controller (AC). Prior to
rebooting the device, you issued the dir command to display the contents of the flash root
directory. Upon reboot, the AC does not successfully run the new version of firmware. What is the issue?
A. The device does not have enough memory to run the new firmware.
B. The filename of the firmware is incorrect.
C. The new firmware is not present in the root directory.
D. Thebootware of the device requires updating as well.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are acceptable topologies for an IRF-Stack? (Select two.)
A. star
B. tree
C. daisy-chain
D. mesh
E. ring
Answer: C,E

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
An IRF-stack is being built using HP A5800 switches, and IRF member 1 will be connected to IRF
member 2 using IRF-port 2. Which IRF-port should it be connected to?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. any
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which protocols/technologies can be used to implement IRF MAD? (Select two.)
A. NSF/GR
B. ICMP
C. IGMP
D. BFD
E. LACP
Answer: D,E

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NO.9 After a MAD enabled IRF-stack splits, what happens to the part of the stack that entered Recovery
state?
A. All ports, except for the IRF-ports, BFD enabled ports, and console ports are shut down.
B. All ports, except for the IRF-ports, LACP enabled Link aggregation groups, console ports, and
manually excluded ports are shut down.
C. All ports, except for the IRF-ports, console ports, and manually excluded ports, are shut down.
D. All ports except for manually excluded ports are shut down.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which roles are supported by the sFlow standard?
A. agent and collector only
B. probe and collector only
C. agent, collector, and analyzer
D. probe, collector, and analyzer
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which sampling mechanisms are available in sFlow in A-Series switches and routers? (Select
two.)
A. packet-based
B. packet-length-based
C. time-based
D. ip-protocol-based
E. ip-source-address-based
F. mac-address-based
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 In an IRF stack, which operational plane is centralized (in the Master) and which is distributed
(among all members)?
A. Management: centralized
Control: centralized
Forwarding: centralized
B. Management: distributed
Control: distributed
Forwarding: distributed
C. Management: centralized
Control: distributed
Forwarding: distributed
D. Management: distributed
Control: centralized
Forwarding: distributed
E. Management: centralized
Control: centralized
Forwarding: distributed
Answer: E

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NO.13 Using HP A5800 switches, which element must be configured in all switches involved in Layer 2
remote port mirroring?
A. remote-mirroring group
B. mirroring-ingress port
C. monitor-egress port
D. remote-probe VLAN
Answer: D

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
You have been asked to configure the switching engine of an HP A3000-24G PoE+ Wireless
Switch. First, you log in to the CLI of the access controller and then move to the System view. You
then attempt to issue the partial command oap co and use the Tab key to complete it. However,
the CLI does not complete the command but issues a line return instead, as shown in the exhibit.
What must you do to connect to the CLI of the switching engine?
A. Return to the User view and then issue the command.
B. Enter the OAP view and then issue the command.
C. Use the CTRL+K key combination to access the CLI of the switching engine.
D. Telnet directly to the IPaddress of the switching engine and issue the command.
Answer: A

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NO.15 You have been asked to deploy an additional HP A-Series wireless access point in the conference room
of an advertising agency. You connect to the CLI of the access controller and create an AP management
template. In which view do you specify the serial number of the access point?
A. Radio view
B. Service Template view
C. AP view
D. ESS Interface view
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-J46
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementation HP Enterprise Backup Solution)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Which component in a Symantec NetBackup solution is responsible for scheduling and tracking client
backups?
A. Media Server
B. Cell Server
C. Master Server
D. Storage Manager
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which device is the bottleneck in an EBS environment with optimum performance?
A. switch
B. server
C. primary storage
D. tape drive
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are implementing a D2D4100 array with deduplication. What can you do to increase the backup
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A. Set the device blocksize as low as possible.
B. Set the segment size to 2GB.
C. Set the host concurrency parameter in the backup application to its maximum.
D. Set the device concurrency parameter in the backup application to 1.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which best practice should be followed when configuring a Virtual Library System 9000 for backup in an
EBS environment?
A. Enable software and hardware compression to increase performance.
B. Use small cartridges to raise thededuplication ratio.
C. Use Echo Copy to mirror backups within the VLS.
D. Use ten characters when creating barcode labels to support all backup ISVs.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What must you do with Emulex HBAs connected to fabric switches when implementing an EBS solution?
(Select two.)
A. Install them in the last PCI slots of each server.
B. Ensure that all entries in the registry for the HBAs are set to 0.
C. Verify that the topology adapter parameter is set to 1.
D. Disable any unused ports.
E. Verify that the link speed is the same for the HBA and the connected SAN switch port.
Answer: C,E

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Exam Code: HP0-M36
Exam Name: HP (HP Data Protector Software Fundamentals for Windows)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Which statement is true about an HP Data Protector Software session restore?
A. It is fast because it is restoring only whole volumes.
B. Objects from a backup are restored in parallel.
C. It does not require any control as it is restoring everything.
D. The database will not be used.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The HP Data Protector Software Backup Session Manager runs on which system(s) in the cell?
A. Cell Manager only
B. client only
C. dedicated installation server
D. client and Cell Manager
Answer: A

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NO.3 By default, which file is the HP Data Protector Software database recovery file?
A. obrindex.dat
B. obdb.dat
C. obdatafiles.dat
D. obdbrecovery.dat
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the maximum size of a file depot for Windows?
A. 500GB
B. 600GB
C. 1TB
D. 2TB
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is a media pool?
A. logical collection of media that belong together
B. collection of data that should be backed up
C. concept that enables faster backup and restore
D. physical collection of media that is used by the same device
Answer: A

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Exam Name: HP (NonStop Kernel Basics)
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Total Q&A: 71 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 What additional information should accompany a processor dump for a service provider to conduct a
proper analysis?
A. CONFAUX, CONFLIST, CONFTEXT, and CUSTFILE
B. CONFLIST, CONFTEXT, USERID, and ZLOGnn subvolume
C. CONFLIST, TSYSCLR, ZLOGnn subvolume, and ZSERVICE subvolume
D. CONFAUX, USERID, ZSERVICE subvolume, and ZSYSCONF.CONFIG
Answer: C

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NO.2 In which subvolume is the TFDS configuration file (TFDSCONF) located?
A. $oss.ztfds
B. $system.ztfds
C. $dsmscm.ztfds
D. $system.system
Answer: B

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NO.3 It was reported that a network outage occurred between 01:00 and 02:00 this morning. Which command
would display the general system event messages for that period?
A. EMSDIST TYPE P, COLLECT $0, TEXTOUT [#MYTERM], TIME 01:00, STOP 02:00
B. EMSDIST TYPE P, COLLECT $0, TEXTOUT [#MYTERM], START 01:00, STOP 02:00
C. EMSDIST TYPE P, LOGFILE $SYSTEM.ZSERVICE.ZZSV0100, TEXTOUT [#MYTERM], TIME 01:00,
STOP 02:00
D. EMSDIST TYPE P, LOGFILE $SYSTEM.ZSERVICE.ZZSV0100, TEXTOUT [#MYTERM], START
01:00, STOP 02:00
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are the primary functions of EMS?
A. to collect and print events
B. to distribute and print events
C. to distribute and show events
D. to collect and distribute events
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which TACL built-in identifies the path used to execute an object or macro file?
A. #FINDLIST
B. #SHOWLIST
C. #SEARCHLIST
D. #PMSEARCHLIST
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which Tandem Failure Data System (TFDS) command do you enter to prevent dumping a particular
processor?
A. RELOAD OFF <n>
B. DISABLECPUS <n>
C. DISABLECPUS ON
D. AUTORELOAD OFF
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which subvolume, by default, contains the current EMS log file?
A. $SYSTEM.ZEMS
B. $SYSTEM.ZLOGnn
C. $SYSTEM.SYSTEM
D. $SYSTEM.ZSERVICE
Answer: B

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NO.8 To view processor status and reload states, which command is used in TFDSCOM?
A. INFO
B. STATUS
C. REPORT
D. HISTORY
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which command is used to determine the Software Product Revision (SPR) of PATHMON?
A. VPROC $SYSTEM.SYSTEM.PATHMON
B. STATUS $SYSTEM.SYSTEM.PATHMON
C. VIEWCONF $SYSTEM.ZSYSCONF.CONFIG
D. FUP COPY $SYSTEM.SYSTEM.PATHMON,,A,COUNT 3
Answer: A

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NO.10 When SAVEABEND files are created, where are they stored.?
A. in $SYSTEM.SYSnn
B. in $SYSTEM.SYSTEM
C. in the object file subvolume
D. in the user's default subvolume
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-B54
Exam Name: HP (Large Format Technical Fundamentals)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Which optional connectivity solution is a feature of the HP Designjet 4X20 series?
A. Firewire
B. Embedded Gigabit Ethernet
C. Parallel
D. Jetdirect print servers
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement is true about the features of the HP Designjet 111 with Tray printer.?
A. It is an A1 roll-fed printer.
B. It is a network-ready four-color printer with excellent line printing capabilities.
C. It is a six-color printer used for excellent graphic-quality printing.
D. It is a four-color sheet-fed printer with an optional roll feed.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What does the HP Designjet Z6100, 60-inch (152cm) model include?
A. a media basket and a take-up reel as standard
B. a take-up reel only as standard
C. a media basket only as standard
D. both dye and UV ink systems as standard
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which HP Designjet printers load roll-fed media from the rear? (Select two.)
A. 111 with Roll
B. 4020
C. HD Scanner
D. T1120SD-MFP
E. Z6100ps
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which spot color system is most widely known?
A. HSK
B. Pantone
C. sRGB
D. RAL
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-E18
Exam Name: HP (HP Service Sales Consultant)
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Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Which statement best describes a customer benefit of choosing HP Proactive Essentials Services?
A. provides a tailor-made service for the customer
B. decreases outages caused by software defects
C. provides cost-effective management with ongoing advice
D. keeps the hardware and software running and maintains IT availabilityobjectives
Answer: B

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NO.2 HP currently employs how many service professionals in how many countries worldwide?
A. less than 49,000 in 70 countries
B. more than 69,000 in 150 countries
C. more than 69,000 in 170 countries
D. more than 96,000 in 150 countries
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which services are included in the Virtualization Services portfolio? (Select three.)
A. education
B. data migration
C. telephone support
D. performance assessment E. capacity planner assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.4 What is the best question to open a dialogue with a customer that is in a changing IT environment?
A. How do you staff for special projects?
B. Ideally, how many additional staff do you plan to recruit?
C. What kind of changes is the business asking you to make?
D. What are your plans to achieve the next level of availability?
Answer: C

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NO.5 When justifying the investment in services to a customer, which response is considered a best practice?
A. Provide lots of industry examples of where HP is number one.
B. Ensure that the customer understands all of the features of the servicesbeing offered.
C. Only include services in the sales cycle once the customer has decidedon the hardware and software
solution.
D. Take a solutions selling approach to assure that the relationship betweenbusiness goals and the
impact of IT on those goals is understood.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Where do HP Education Services belong within the Business Critical Server (BCS) support services
portfolio?
A. referral services
B. premium services
C. value-added services
D. basic support services
Answer: C

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NO.7 How can HP ProLiant Services help reduce a customer's overall cost? (Select three.)
A. protects business data
B. minimizes the risk of downtime
C. results in 80% less deployment costs
D. optimizes power management in the IT environment
E. decreases IT maintenance and improves operational efficiency
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.8 When is the best time to position HP Deployment Services to your customer?
A. at the start of the sales process that involves new hardware
B. after new hardware is delivered and the customer experiences technicaldifficulties
C. during the configuration process when HP Installation Services are addedto the order
D. after a hardware order is finalized and the customer starts to plandeployment activities
Answer: A

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NO.9 Why would you suggest the HP Mission Critical and Proactive Services to your customers?
A. They are high-cost services and will help you meet your numbers.
B. It is the only way you will meet the new Penetration Rate Index (PRI)commitment.
C. They are a way of guaranteeing that a customer never has any moreunplanned downtime.
D. They can help reduce a customer's exposure and vulnerability and protectagainst costly downtime
risks.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which service is bundled with VMware licenses?
A. no service is bundled
B. 9x5 support
C. 24x7 support
D. HP Installation and Startup Service
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-E42
Exam Name: HP (HP Visual Collaboration Technical)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 From the Database Maintenance tab, you are unable to do what?
A. back up and restore the database
B. upload a previously saved copy of the database
C. upgrade the database
D. delete the current database
Answer: A

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NO.2 What should you do when you cannot resolve an issue?
A. Attempt to format and recover the user s operating system.
B. Generate a Diagnostics report (zip file) and forward to the next level of support analyst.
C. Attempt to un-install and re-install the software.
D. Attempt to replace suspected faulty hardware.
Answer: A

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NO.3 For the Visual Collaboration Manager configuration, where should you make network changes?
A. from the Visual Collaboration Manager configuration page
B. directly on the Portal server from the shell menu
C. from the Portal Management page
D. from the Visual Collaboration Management admin panel
Answer: B

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NO.4 Before deploying the H.323 Gateway, what must you do first?
A. Add a Gateway account using the Admin page on the Portal.
B. Add a Gateway component using the Super account on the Portal.
C. Add a Gateway license using the Super account on the Portal.
D. Add a Gateway component using the Admin account on the Portal.
Answer: D

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NO.5 How do you access the Portal Maintenance page?
A. from the Portal Server Shell account
B. from the Manager Admin page, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
C. from the Portal Super Admin account, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
D. from the Portal Admin account, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which Visual Collaboration product can deliver HD720p60/1080p30?
A. Visual Collaboration Desktop
B. Visual Collaboration Room 220
C. Visual Collaboration Portal and Gateway
D. Visual Collaboration Room 100
Answer: C

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NO.7 What do network settings in the Desktop configuration determine?
A. which servers, ports and proxies the Router will use when connecting to meetings
B. which servers, ports and proxies the Gateway will use when connecting to meetings
C. which servers, ports and proxies the Desktop will use when connecting to meetings
D. which bandwidth the servers, ports and proxies will use when connecting to meetings
Answer: C

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NO.8 How do you access the Portal Maintenance page.?
A. from the Portal Server Shell account
B. from the Manager Admin page, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
C. from the Portal Super Admin account, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
D. from the Portal Admin account, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which function does the HPVC Router perform?
A. system administration and component management
B. efficient transport of A/V streams
C. trans-coding to legacy systems
D. phone bridging to the corporate telephone system
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which statements are true about the Management Portal? (Select two.)
A. It administers all devices and user accounts.
B. It is the primary Media Router and hosts the layer routing, databases and administration applications.
C. It provides up to 100 ports for connections and can be expanded as necessary.
D. It provides web proxy functionality, enabling web browsers usage for general web access.
Answer: A,B

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Exam Name: HP (S-Series Networking Product Authorization)
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Total Q&A: 34 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 What are capabilities of the TippingPoint Security Management System (SMS)? (Select two.)
A. management of additional SMS devices
B. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
C. event reporting for any managed IPS devices
D. management of other non-TippingPoint devices
E. Digital Vaccine updates
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 Which features distinguish TippingPoint Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) products from each other.?
(Select two.)
A. how they access the SSH CLI of the IPS
B. Policy Management using segments/segment groups
C. number of segments
D. inspection throughput
E. how they access the Web Interface (LSM)
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which flow control options can TippingPoint Intrusion Protection System (IPS) apply to traffic, based on
policy? (Select three.)
A. rate-limit
B. block
C. return to source
D. fragment the traffic
E. permit/alert
F. reroute to another destination
Answer: A,B,E

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Exam Code: HP0-M44
Exam Name: HP (HP SiteScope 11.x Software)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Which protocols does SiteScope use to access remote UNIX servers.? (Select three.)
A. WMI
B. SSH
C. Rlogin
D. NetBIOS
E. JDBC
F. Telnet
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.2 How do you start the SiteScope application in a Windows environment? (Select two.)
A. From a command line, run "start SiteScope."
B. From a command line, run "net start SiteScope."
C. From a command line, run a command using this syntax: <installpath>/SiteScope/start.
D. Start > Program Files > HP SiteScope > Start HP SiteScope
E. Start > Settings > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Services > Start SiteScope
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 Where do log files reside?
A. \\<install dir>\tmp directory
B. <SiteScope_root_path>\SiteScope\logs directory
C. <SiteScope_root_path>\SiteScope\bin directory
D. master.config
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are prerequisites that should be met before tuning SiteScope? (Select two.)
A. All instances of SiteScope must be running on the same server.
B. SiteScope must be integrated with Business Service Management.
C. SiteScope must be installed as a standalone server.
D. A single instance of SiteScope must be running on a server.
E. SiteScope must be integrated with Operations Manager.
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 What are the basic SiteScope tuning types? (Select two.)
A. Windows server tuning
B. SiteScope tuning
C. remote server tuning
D. monitor tuning
E. alert tuning
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: HP0-J51
Exam Name: HP (Installing HP StorageWorks Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 123 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 When running diagnostics on a P4000 system you notice that the "BBU Capacity Test" is unchecked by
default. Why is this? (Select two.)
A. The test is not supported on any P4000 system.
B. The test can take up to 24 hours to complete.
C. The test can overwrite HDD data.
D. The test sends data to HP via the Internet.
E. The test turns off the controller's cache.
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 Which browser is supported to access X1000 Windows Server Remote Administration Applet from a
non-Microsoft computer?
A. Apple Safari
B. Google Chrome
C. Microsoft Internet Explorer
D. Mozilla Firefox
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the recommended minimum block size that should be configured when backing up to D2D
systems?
A. 64KB
B. 128KB
C. 256KB
D. 1MB
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are meeting with a customer who has many different backup applications and operating systems.
To identify which operating systems are supported with each backup application by VLS and D2D, which
HP document should you consult?
A. Storage Compatibility Matrix
B. EBS Compatibility Matrix
C. Backup Solutions Guide
D. Storage Backup Matrix
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer wants to add a drive enclosure to his existing P2000 G3 system. What is the maximum
distance allowed between enclosures?
A. 1m
B. 2m
C. 5m
D. 10m
Answer: B

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NO.6 A consultant is discussing with a customer how to create a four node multi-site cluster with the P4000
G2 family of products. The customer wants two physical sites, one being the primary. What is the
minimum total number of managers that should be run to guarantee quorum?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which HP P4000 management tool should you use to gather storage system status information?
A. Centralized Management Console (CMC)
B. HP Integrated Lights Out (ILO)
C. Web Based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
D. System Management Homepage (SMH)
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which CLI command is used to verify the setting of the IP address of a P2000 G3 Storage Array?
A. show ip-address
B. show network-parameters
C. show network-address
D. show network
Answer: B

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NO.9 In the Storage Management Utility for a P2000 G3, which wizards are available to allow you to quickly
and easily set up the system? (Select two.)
A. Drive Wizard
B. Configuration Wizard
C. Replication Setup Wizard
D. Hosts Wizard
E. Physical Setup Wizard
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 What is a feature of P4000 snapshots?
A. Snapshots are thin provisioned but can be made fully provisioned after being created.
B. As the original volume data changes the snapshot remains the same as the volume at its creation time.
C. The same amount of space is reserved for the snapshot as the original volume.
D. The snapshot is thinly provisioned and requires no reserve space.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Your customer wants to monitor the performance of a P4000 G2 system. What is the minimum time
sample interval that can be set using the Performance Monitor?
A. 1 second
B. 5 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 1 minute
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which P2000 G3 Combo FC/iSCSI controller ports would be most suitable for replicating snapshots to
remote locations?
A. 1GbE iSCSI
B. 10GbE iSCSI
C. 4Gb FC
D. 8Gb FC
Answer: A

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NO.13 Where can you find the DHCP-assigned IP address on your D2D system during initial
configuration?
A. Web Management Interface
B. VGA Console
C. Telnet
D. CommandView TL
Answer: B

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NO.14 A customer has two HP P2000 G3 FC arrays. One is located at a remote branch office. You have been
asked to configure a replication set between the two arrays. Which components are required to form a
replication set? (Select two.)
A. external view volume
B. primary view volume
C. host accessible remote volume
D. destination snap pool
E. source snapshot
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 Which method of deduplication is used in the HP StoreOnce D2D devices?
A. fixed-length data segmenting
B. variable-length data segmenting
C. object-level differencing
D. hash-based chunking
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which D2D network configuration mode will improve the availability of overall network bandwidth?
A. Single Port Configuration
B. Dual Port Configuration
C. High Availability (Port Failover) Configuration
D. High Availability (Link Aggregation) Configuration
Answer: D

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NO.17 What information is displayed in the Configuration View panel overview of the P2000 SMU about the
status of any FC hosts attached to it? (Select two.)
A. connection type
B. WWPN
C. HBA Firmware revision
D. operating system
E. profile
Answer: B,E

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NO.18 A consultant meets with a customer to define a Disaster Recovery plan based on HP VLS technology.
What are the most important parameters the consultant must obtain from the customer.? (Select two.)
A. Recovery Point Objective
B. Restore Point Objective
C. Recovery Time Objective
D. Retention Point Objective
E. Retention Time Objective
Answer: A,C

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NO.19 In an HP P2000 storage array, the Drive Spin Down (DSD) feature can reduce power consumption by
powering down drive spindles. Which statements correctly describe the DSD feature? (Select two.)
A. Disk scrubbing is disabled when DSD is enabled.
B. Only RAID configured vdisks can be spun down.
C. Drive Spin Down delay defaults to 15 minutes.
D. Default state is enabled.
E. Only drives that reside in vdisks can be spun down.
Answer: A,C

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NO.20 The HP P2000 G3 FC Storage Array supports both the MSA70 and D2700 disk enclosures. When
connecting these enclosures to the P2000 G3 FC controller, where can the MSA70 enclosure be cabled
without limiting performance?
A. any location
B. before all D2700 enclosures
C. after all D2700 enclosures
D. after the first D2700 enclosure
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 190-522
Exam Name: Lotus (Deploying Domino R5 Applications)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 46 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-22

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NO.1 Bert administers a Domino environment consisting of multiple domains. The
environment includes several mail-enabled applications which require addressing
information from all of the domains.
In which one of the following ways can Bert make the addressing information available
to the company's traveling Notes users?
A. Set up Cascading Addressing Books on the Domino servers.
B. Add the MOBILE_DIRECTORY=1 variable to each user's NOTES.INI file.
C. Set up Master Address Books on the Domino servers and replicate locally to the user's
laptops.
D. Create a Directory Catalog that includes each domain's user information and replicate
it to the users' laptops.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Vera placed a Readers field in a form.
Which one of the following describes what a Readers field does?
A. It records the name of the people, groups, and/or servers who have read the document.
B. It restricts access to the document to the name of the people, groups, and/or servers
listed in it.
C. It allows a person, group, and/or server listed as having No Access in the ACL to read
individual documents.
D. It causes the document to appear with an unread marker for people in the Readers field
until they have opened the document at least once.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A discussion database has been deployed on ServerA and ServerB. ServerA should
receive everything other than ACL and design changes when the server replicates
with ServerB.
Which one of the following access levels should ServerB be assigned in ServerA's copy
of the database?
A. Editor
B. Manager
C. Designer
D. Manager with the No ACL option selected.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which one of the following is NOT a Note?
A. Form
B. Hotspot
C. Document
D. Shared agent
Answer: B

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NO.5 Helga created a new application. She used C code as part of the application.
Which one of the following will need to be done to the workstation in order for this
application to work on a Web client?
A. C code will NOT work.
B. The browser must support C APIs.
C. A C interpreter will need to be loaded.
D. The Notes client must be enabled to use C code.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A workflow application was developed which required a combination of routing and
replication for document distribution. Documents were routed to people and to a
database.
Which one of the following did the Domino administrator do to enable document routing
to work?
A. She created a mail in database document.
B. She created a workflow routing document.
C. She sent the NOTES.INI parameter WORKFLOW_ENABLED=1.
D. She added the database to the routing tab of the Server document.
Answer: A

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Search the Domino 5 admin help with "main-in database".

NO.7 David signs a database before placing it into production.
Which one of the following would be a reason for doing this?
A. For ACL security.
B. For cross-certification.
C. For server access security.
D. For design element security.
Answer: D

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NO.8 An application has been deployed on ServerA/ Certkiller . However, Mona is denied
access to that server.
Which one of the following might cause Mona to be denied access to ServerA/ Certkiller ?
A. Mona deleted the public key from her ID file.
B. Mona's Person document has the NoAccess field selected.
C. ServerA/ Certkiller has the NOTES.INI parameter NO_DIALUP_ACCESS turned on.
D. ServerA/ Certkiller 's Server document is only allowing access to users who have
person documents in the Domino Directory.
Mona's Person document is not in the Domino Directory.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Jenny created a new application. She used JavaScript as part of the application. The
application has been tested to work on a Web client.
Which one of the following will need to be done to the workstation in order for this
application to work in a Notes client?
A. The browser must support Java.
B. Nothing. JavaScript will work as is.
C. The workstation must be enabled to use JavaScript.
D. A JavaScript translator will need to be added to the workstation.
Answer: C

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NO.10 An application was handed off to the Domino Administrator for deployment. The
hand-off sheet indicated that a form in the database needed to be placed in several
mail files.
When the owners of those mail filed tries to access documents which used that form,
the following message appeared:
"Cannot locate field definition for Field: Status"
Which one of the following could have caused that message to appear?
A. The Status field was not fully defined.
B. The Status field was defined, but not copies to the mail file.
C. The Status shared field was defined, but not copied to the mail file.
D. The Status shared field was defined, but the shared field link was not available to the
mail file.
Answer: D

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