2014年1月31日星期五

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Exam Code: 50-895
Exam Name: Novell (Novell eDirectory Design and Implementation:eDirectory 8.8)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What tasks are helpful in completing a needs analysis when designing an eDirectory tree?
(Choose 2.)
A.Gather information about network connectivity
B.Gather information about resources that users access
C.Gather information to decide on a replica placement strategy
D.Gather information to estimate the time for each phase of design
E.Gather information to decide which server should be the time provider
Correct:A B

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NO.2 Examine the exhibit by clicking the Exhibit button. How many subordinate references will exist
in this tree?
A.3
B.5
C.6
D.7
E.8
F.9
G.12
Correct:E

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NO.3 What is a part of analyzing user needs when creating an accessibility needs analysis document?
A.Design a strategy for mobile users.
B.Specify ZENworks object configurations.
C.Specify security rights to particular objects.
D.Gather information related to physical network resource needs.
E.Create guidelines that determine how eDirectory objects are used to create the user environment.
Correct:D

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NO.4 Which statement is true about eDirectory partitions?
A.Partitions can overlap each other.
B.A container object can reside in 2 partitions.
C.A partition provides fault tolerance for the file system.
D.Partitions are logical divisions of eDirectory that enable the database to be divided among several
servers.
Correct:D

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NO.5 Which of the following is most important to consider when designing the upper layers of an
eDirectory tree?
A.Time synchronization strategy
B.Number of objects in the tree
C.Number of servers in the tree
D.Physical network infrastructure
E.Number of partitions and replicas
Correct:D

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NO.6 What is the most important design consideration when designing the upper layers of an
eDirectory tree?
A.Partition and replica plan
B.Time synchronization strategy
C.Number of objects in the tree
D.Number of servers in the tree
E.Physical network infrastructure
Correct:E

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NO.7 Which statements are true regarding the placement of eDirectory objects? (Choose 2.)
A.Place application objects in their own container.
B.Don't place user objects near the top of the tree.
C.If possible, don't place objects deep within a tree.
D.If possible, don't place server objects within the same container.
E.Server objects should be placed near the user objects they are servicing.
Correct:C E

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NO.8 Which statement is true regarding the Priority Sync feature?
A.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting any partition.
B.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting the root partition.
C.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting the same partition.
D.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting parent or child
partitions.
Correct:C

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NO.9 Which statement is true regarding the function-based design for the upper layers of your
eDirectory tree?
A.It is the best design type to handle future growth.
B.It should be used if there is a WAN in the network.
C.It is best for small networks that do not span more than one location.
D.It is a more difficult type of design for the upper layers of your tree.
E.It should be used if there are multiple organization objects in the tree.
Correct:C

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NO.10 Which replica type contains only the partition root object?
A.Master
B.Read-only
C.Read/write
D.Filtered replica
E.Subordinate reference
Correct:E

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Exam Code: 050-719
Exam Name: Novell (Novell Certified Administrator - Enterprise Services)
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Total Q&A: 110 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 On a SUSE Linux Enterprise Server, where is the default location for the eDirectory database?
A. /etc/novell/dib
B. /opt/eDirectory/dib
C. /var/novell/eDirectory/dib
D. /etc/opt/novell/eDirectory/dib
E. /var/opt/novell/eDirectory/data/dib
Answer: E

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NO.2 After installing OES 2 on your SUSE Linux Enterprise Server, where are the init scripts used to start
and stop OES 2 services located in the server's file system?
A. /etc/rc.d/
B. /etc/init.d/
C. /etc/rc.d/init.d/
D. /etc/novell/init.d
E. /etc/opt/novell/init.d/
Answer: B

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NO.3 On a SLED 10 workstation, how many primary partitions are you limited to per hard disk.?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
E. Six
Answer: C

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NO.4 You work in an organization that maintains many different levels of restricted information. When
someone requests access to certain information, individuals with approval rights approve or deny the
request.
What Identity Manager component streamlines this process?
A. JBoss
B. Event Cache
C. Novell Audit Agent
D. Role-based entitlements
E. The Metadirectory engine
F. Workflow-based provisioning
Answer: F

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NO.5 You are looking at the partition space of your partitions on your third SCSI hard disk on your SLED 10
workstation. Which device identifies the first partition on your third SCSI hard disk?
A. /dev/sdc1
B. /dev/sdc2
C. /dev/sdc3
D. /root/sdc1
E. /root/sdc2
F. /root/sdc3
Answer: A

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NO.6 On a SUSE Linux Enterprise Server, which log file contains messages from running processes?
A. /var/log/warn
B. /var/log/boot.log
C. /var/log/boot.msg
D. /var/log/messages
E. /var/opt/novell/eDirectory/log/ndsd.log
Answer: D

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NO.7 How should Identity Manager's seven services be installed and configured?
A. On a single computer
B. Only on the Novell Audit Server
C. With as many instances of the metadirectory engine as systems on a network
D. One or more services per computer, but not recommended to have all seven on a single computer in a
production environment
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are the architect of an identity management solution for your company. What component of Identity
Manager would you use to create a big picture view of the identity management solution?
A. Designer
B. Provisioning Module
C. Identity Manager Architect
D. Novell Identity Manager User Application
Answer: A

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NO.9 With nothing to download or install on the user's workstation, which OES 2 service provides the
solution for simple, Internet-based access to file storage?
A. Novell iFolder
B. Novell eDirectory
C. Novell NetStorage
D. Novell Storage Services
E. Novell Key Distribution Center
Answer: C

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NO.10 You experienced a sudden power outage and your UPS unit failed. As a result, your Linux system went
down without shutting down cleanly. Now your system won't boot. To fix the problem, what should you do
to start fixing the problem?
A. Boot from your CD or DVD and select Memory Test
B. Boot from your CD or DVD and select Rescue System
C. Boot from your CD or DVD and select Installation - Safe Settings
D. Boot from your CD or DVD and select Installation - ACPI Disabled
E. Boot from your CD or DVD and select Installation - Local APIC Disabled
Answer: B

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NO.11 How are Identity Vault objects mapped to a connected system?
A. Each connected system is assigned a distinguished name each time Identity Manager is launched.
B. Each object in the Identity Vault contains an association table that maps to the connected systems.
C. Each connected system already contains a reverse-indexed table that supplies an identifier to the
Identity Vault.
D. An association table is created if matching policies detect at least 90% of the attributes are the same
on the connected system.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which is a startup option for Identity Vault Driver Objects?
A. Manual: The driver must be started through iManager.
B. SafE.The driver starts with a driver shim to allow for troubleshooting.
C. XML: The driver allows you to directly edit the XML scripts while it is running.
D. Subscriber: The driver only sends events from the connected system to the Identity Vault.
E. Extend SchemA.The driver detects classes and attributes that aren't yet in eDirectory and prompts you
as to whether to extend the schema to include them.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which statements are true? (Choose 2.)
A. There is no evaluation period offered for OES 2.
B. Licenses can be downloaded at http://download.novell.com/.
C. All OES licenses are purchased on a user-connection basis.
D. You are authorized to install as many OES 2 servers as you need.
E. OES 2 licenses determine the number of OES 2 servers you can install.
Answer: C,D

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NO.14 When does a SLED session begin?
A. When a user logs in
B. When the computer reboots
C. Each time the screen unlocks
D. When a user switches desktops
E. Every time Session Manager performs a system action
Answer: A

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NO.15 If your Identity Vault doesn't contain the classes or attributes required by other applications, what can
you do?
A. Disable the bidirectional framework.
B. Extend the eDirectory schema to include them.
C. Run Identity Manager and edit the metadirectory.
D. Run the applications and select the classes or attributes you want to share.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 050-730
Exam Name: Novell (Certified Novell Identity Manager Administrator)
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Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is the minimum RAM system requirement for Designer?
A. 128 MB
B. 256 MB
C. 512 MB
D. 1024 MB
E. 2048 MB
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement is true.?
A. When an event occurs in the Identity Vault, Identity Manager creates an XML document that describes
the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Publisher channel to a driver shim.
B. When an event occurs in the Identity Vault, Identity Manager creates an XML document that describes
the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Subscriber channel to a driver shim.
C. When an event occurs in a connected system, Identity Manager creates an XML document that
describes the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Subscriber channel to a driver shim.
D. When an event occurs in the Identity Vault, a driver shim creates an XML document that describes the
Identity Vault event and submits it through the Subscriber channel to Identity Manager.
E. When an event occurs in a connected system, a Driver Shim creates an XML document that describes
the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Subscriber channel to Identity Manager.
Answer: B

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NO.3 When you start Designer for the first time or start Designer without a project listed, which should you
first do?
A. Make sure that the Debug perspective is selected.
B. Make sure that the Plug-in perspective is selected.
C. Make sure that the Designer perspective is selected.
D. Make sure that the Java/Java Browsing perspective is selected.
E. Make sure that the Java Type Hierarchy perspective is selected.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What does a Driver object contain? (Choose 2.)
A. Packages
B. Driver Set
C. Policy Objects
D. Application driver shim
E. Subscriber and Publisher objects
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 Identity Manager uses a MetaDirectory Engine to process Identity Vault data and events. What
component assures changes in the Identity Vault are not lost if a connected system goes offline?
A. Partition
B. Obit flag
C. Change Log
D. Event Cache
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which installation mode is supported by the integrated installer?
A. Silent mode
B. Non-root mode
C. Console mode
D. AutoYaST mode
E. Standalone mode
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statements are true? (Choose 2.)
A. When an event is being sent to a driver, it is a notification.
B. When an event is being sent to a driver, it is a command.
C. When an event is being sent to Identity Manager, it is a command.
D. When an event is being sent to Identity Manager, it is a notification.
E. Events and commands are handled the same way within an IDM 4 environment.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 When using Designer, a perspective is a collection of related views and editors. Which perspective
should be open the first time you run the application?
A. Debug perspective
B. Designer perspective
C. Java/Java Browsing perspective
D. Java Type Hierarchy perspective
E. Plug-in Development perspective
Answer: B

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NO.9 When using Designer, which modeling mode is used to do all low-level operations with driver sets,
drivers, policies and applications?
A. Table Mode
B. System Mode
C. DataFlow Mode
D. Architect Mode
E. Developer Mode
Answer: E

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NO.10 Which task within Novell iManager allows administrators to view all objects that are associated with a
particular Novell IDM driver?
A. Object Inspector
B. Driver Inspector
C. DriverSet Inspector
D. Driver Cache Inspector
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which statements about the Integrated Installer are true? (Choose 2.)
A. It automatically handles dependencies
B. It automatically installs all of the drivers
C. The iManager plug-in needs to be manually installed
D. It exists only for the Windows operating system family
Answer: A,B

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NO.12 Which view do you use to access Policy Simulator? (Choose 2.)
A. The Tasks view
B. The Outline view
C. The Project view
D. The Navigator view
E. The Policy Flow view
Answer: B,E

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NO.13 An Identity Manager Job can only interact with which driver channel?
A. Input
B. Sender
C. Output
D. Receiver
E. Publisher
F. Placement
G. Subscriber
Answer: G

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NO.14 When data changes in the Identity Vault or a connected application, which processes the changes?
A. Drivers
B. Remote Loader
C. Identity Vault
D. Metadirectory Engine
E. Connected application
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which view enables you to view the filters that allow the data to flow between all of the systems and
the Identity Vaults as well as view how passwords flow through the different systems?
A. Project view
B. Outline view
C. Dataflow view
D. Navigator view
E. Policy Set view
Answer: C

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NO.1 A network administrator needs to calculate the maximum number of voicemail ports required on
their BCM 450 Rls 1.0 system. Which factor should be considered when making this determination?
A.The range is 0 to 48 ports with the Capacity Expansion Card installed.
B.The range is 0 to 32 ports without the Capacity Expansion Card installed.
C.Each voicemail port requires two media channel resources.
D.Each voicemail port requires two signaling channel resources.
Correct:B

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NO.2 A customer has a BCM400 that is performing all IPSec processing using software. They are
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maximum number of simultaneous tunnels?
A.12 tunnels
B.16 tunnels
C.24 tunnels
D.30 tunnels
Correct:B

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NO.3 A customer's BCM450 Rls. 1.0 system will be configured with 85 IP telephones and voicemail.
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resources for this customer?
A.a 2/6 split
B.an expansion chassis
C.additional processor expansion cards (PECs)
D.a capacity expansion card (CEC)
Correct:D

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NO.4 A customer wants to purchase a BCM50 solution. They need to determine both the number and
type of Media Bay Modules (MBMs) to purchase that will support their extension requirements.
They require support for six analog trunks, 14 digital extensions, two fax machines, and two
single-line phones, and they may eventually add an analog device. Which two MBMs will meet
these requirements? (Choose two.)
A.one ASM 4 MBM
B.one ASM 8 MBM
C.one DSM 16 MBM
D.one 8x16 Combo MBM
Correct:B D

Nortel exam   920-337   920-337   920-337 demo   920-337

NO.5 If a 3/5 channel split is configured, which statement about the DS30 resources is true?
A.DS30 2 cannot be used by any module.
B.DS30 7 can be used by any module.
C.DS30 6 and DS30 7 cannot be used by any module.
D.DS30 6 cannot be used by any modules that require two busses.
Correct:D

Nortel exam   920-337   920-337   920-337 demo   920-337

NO.6 Which component or feature is unique to the BCM450 Rls. 1.0 platform?
A.base function tray
B.eight fax ports
C.music source
D.two LAN ports
Correct:B

Nortel exam   920-337   920-337   920-337 demo   920-337

NO.7 The BCM450 Rls. 1.0 base unit supports 100 IP sets. How many IP sets does the BCM450
support with the Capacity Expansion Card installed?
A.100
B.200
C.300
D.450
Correct:C

Nortel exam   920-337   920-337   920-337 demo   920-337

NO.8 A company plans to implement a BCM solution with BCM Voice Messaging (CallPilot) and
Contact Center enabled. They are in the process of setting up a contact center. Which two items
should be considered when configuring the contact center? (Choose two.)
A.the number of IP trunks available
B.the number of DSP resources available
C.the number of Virtual Device Interface (VDI) channels available
D.the number of voice ports available
Correct:B D

Nortel exam   920-337   920-337   920-337 demo   920-337

NO.9 Your customer wants to purchase a BCM solution. Their requirements include: two Media Bay
Modules (MBMs) with the capability to add an expansion unit redundant power supplies RAID 1
mirrored hard disks Which configuration meets these requirements?
A.the BCM50e configuration
B.the BCM 200 Redundant Feature Option (RFO) configuration
C.the BCM 400 RFO configuration
D.the BCM 450 Rls. 1.0 Standard configuration
E.the BCM 400 Standard configuration
Correct:C

Nortel exam   920-337   920-337   920-337 demo   920-337

NO.10 A new customer already has an ADSL modem supplied by the ISP. The customer requires:
remote access for management a firewall IP telephony VPN Branch Tunneling Which BCM50
model will best address the customer's requirements?
A.BCM50
B.BCM50a
C.BCM50e
D.BCM50i
Correct:C

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Exam Code: 920-362
Exam Name: Nortel (Notel 920-362)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A customer purchased a Media Gateway (MG) 1000B Rls. 6.0 system to add to an existing
Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 6.0 system. Which statements regarding the hardware
components within a release 6.0 Branch Office are true? (Choose two.)
A.The MG 1000B supports Co-Res and SIP Line Gateway on separate physical servers.
B.The MG 1000B supports Co-Res and Signaling Server Gateway on the same physical server.
C.The MG 1000B supports a redundant Co-Res Call Servers.
D.The MG 1000B supports Co-Res and SIP Line Gateway on the same physical server.
Answer:A B

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NO.2 At a customer site, you installed a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 6.0 SA Co-Res system with
the following CS 1000 applications. Call Server, Signaling Server, Element Manager, Network Routing
Service Manager, and Subscriber Manager. Upon accessing Subscriber Manager, information regarding
the System ID is displayed on the screen and you're not able to navigate the Subscriber Manager web
page. Which task is required next before you can navigate and manage the Subscriber Manager
Application?
A.Copy and Paste the system ID information and create a new Subscriber Manager certificate within the
UCM Private Certificate Authority.
B.Copy and Paste the system ID information to the Nortel.com Keycode Retrieval System to generate a
license file.
C.Export the system ID as an XML file and distribute the file to the CS 1000 Element Managers as a
trusted application.
D.Export the system ID as an XML file and synchronize the file information with the customer's LDAP
server.
Answer:B

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NO.3 A customer with a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 6.0 SA Co-Res system is experiencing an
Element Manager issue where the page cannot be displayed to the users. In order to resolve this problem
you decide to reboot the Element Manager. The CPPM Co-Res server has the following deployed
applications. Call Server, Signaling Server, Element Manager, and Network Routing Service. Which
option allows for the least service interruption when restarting the Signaling Server application?
A.Restart the Signaling Server application via Element Manager - Maintenance.
B.Restart the Signaling Server application by pressing the INI button on the CPPM server.
C.Restart the Signaling Server application by pressing the RST button on the CPPM server.
D.Restart the Signaling Server application by logging into the Base Manager and restarting Jboss.
Answer:A

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NO.4 A Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 6.0 customer opened a trouble ticket that a newly installed
system with SIP Line Gateway cannot place calls to an existing 5.x site. After investigating the problem
you isolate the problem to the SIP Line Gateway settings. Which SIP Line Gateway Setting is most likely
to block calls between the two sites?
A.Security Policy - Security Disabled
B.Security Policy - Best Effort
C.Security Policy - Secure Local
D.Security Policy - Secure End-to-End
Answer:D

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NO.5 A customer is installing a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 6.0 System with Unified
Communications Management. The Linux base software has been installed and the CPPM Co-Resident
Call Server and Signaling server has been configured as a member server within an existing CS 1000 Rls
6.0 security domain. Which statement describes the process the administrator must use to deploy
applications to the CPPM Co-Resident?
A.Log in to the UCM of the Primary Security Server and access the Base Manager to deploy.
B.Log in to the Base Manager and access local Deployment Manager to deploy.
C.Log in to the Base Manager and access central Deployment Manager to deploy.
D.Log in to the UCM of the Primary Security Server and access central Deployment Manager to deploy.
Answer:D

Nortel   920-362 certification   920-362   920-362

NO.6 A customer with a newly installed Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 6.0 SA Co-Res is reporting
dropped calls between the two campus sites. You suspect the call server is not terminating the call and
decide to login and review the configuration and collect the logs from the active Call Server. Which CS
1000E hardware component will you access to verify the configuration and review the logs?
A.Co-resident Call and Signaling Server running on Dell R300 server
B.Co-resident Call and Signaling Server running on HP DL320 server
C.Co-resident Call and Signaling Server running on IBM x3550 server
D.Co-resident Call and Signaling Server running on CPPM server
Answer:D

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NO.7 From which two parts is the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) composed and in what order must
they be configured?
A.first the host name and then the domain name
B.first the domain name and then the host name
C.first the COTS server IP address and then the port number
D.first the COTS server port number and then the IP address
Answer:A

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NO.8 A Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 6.0 customer site has both Signaling Server Gateway and
SIP Line Gateway up communicating with the CS 1000 Call Server Which statement is true regarding the
configuration similarities between the Signaling Server Gateway and SIP Line Gateway?
A.They each load-balance the registration of IP telephones.
B.They both require separate Zone-based configuration for codec selection.
C.They both use virtual TNs.
D.They each require Application Module Link configuration.
Answer:C

Nortel   920-362 demo   920-362   920-362

NO.9 A customer is planning to deploy a multi-site Communication Server (CS) 1000E network with a UCM
Security Domain that includes a Primary Security Server and a Backup Security Server. Which
statements regarding the Backup Security Server are true? (Choose two.)
A.It manages authorization requests when the Primary is not available.
B.It manages configuration changes when the Primary is not available.
C.It manages authentication requests when the Primary is not available.
D.It issues certificates to servers when the Primary is not available.
Answer:A C

Nortel Bootcamp   920-362 demo   920-362   920-362

NO.10 A customer that recently deployed a Communication Server 1000 Rls. 6.0 system with Unified
Communications Management would like to take advantage of the UCM log forwarding capability. Which
statement regarding UCM Logging Services is true?
A.Only Application logs can be forwarded to a Syslog server.
B.Only OAM and Security logs can be forwarded to a Syslog server.
C.Application, OAM and Security logs can all be forwarded to a Syslog server.
D.Only Security logs can be forwarded to a Syslog server.
Answer:B

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Exam Code: 922-101
Exam Name: Nortel (Communication Server 1000 Linux Platform Architecture)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 32 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A customer is deploying a Communication Server 1000 Rls. 6.0 High Availability system and would like
to know what options for Signaling Server functionality exist.
Which options can the customer deploy? (Choose two.)
A. CPPM VxWorks-based Signaling Server
B. CPPM Linux-based Signaling Server
C. COTS VxWorks-based Signaling Server
D. COTS Linux-based Signaling Server
Answer: BD

Nortel exam prep   922-101   922-101   922-101 exam prep

NO.2 A customer is deploying a Communication Server (CS) Rls. 6.0 system. They plan to have a Dell R300
COTS configured as the Primary Security Server and a CPPM configured as a Backup Security Server.
Which statements regarding the roles of the Primary and Backup Security Server are true? (Choose two.)
A. You must have a Backup Security Server for the CS 1000 network.
B. The Backup Security Server is automatically promoted to Primary Security Server.
C. The Primary Security Server cannot be demoted to a member server.
D. The Backup Security Server automatically handles authentication requests when the Primary is down.
Answer: CD

Nortel   922-101   922-101 braindump   922-101 original questions

NO.3 You have installed the Linux Base onto a Commercial Off the Shelf (COTS) server that will be
configured as a Member Server. You are ready to perform the Security Configuration. All LAN connections
are in place and functioning normally.
After connecting through a browser, what is your next step to perform the Security Configuration of this
COTS Member server?
A. Enter the IP address of the Certificate Authority in the address bar of the browser.
B. Enter the IP address of the Primary Security server in the address bar of the browser.
C. Enter the FQDN of the COTS Member server in the address bar of the browser.
D. Enter the FQDN of the Primary Security server in the address bar of the browser.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: NO0-002
Exam Name: Nokia (Nokia Security Administrator )
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Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 The Default priority for VRRP:
A. 100
B. 10
C. 110
D. 1
Answer: A

Nokia original questions   NO0-002   NO0-002

NO.2 'What is correct of DNS and hostfiles on IPSO (Choose all that apply):
A. The hostfile is located in /etc/resolv.conf
B. Can use a hostfile if DNS is disabled
C. Checkpoint uses when retrieving policy with Checkpoint Policy Provider
D. A hostname must be an FQDN
E. Required for Checkpoint Licencing
Answer: A, B, D, E

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NO.3 User UID of 0 will give:
A. Admin permissions of root on the machine
B. Backup user permissions on the enforcement module
C. Monitor user permissions
Answer: A

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Setting the UID of 0 from the Voyager or the CLI will give the same machine
permissions as the root user on a Nokia IPSO device

NO.4 What is the correct flow of data on a NAP. Consider there is a fresh installation of
Checkpoint NG installed (Choose the best answer):
A. Wire - Ethernet Driver - FWrulebase - Routing- NAT- Ethernet Driver -Wire
B. Wire - Ethernet Driver -FW rulebase&NAT - Routing- FW1- Ethernet Driver- Wire
C. Wire - FW Rulebase - Routing - NAT - Ethernet Driver - Wire
D. Wire - FW1rulebase - NAT - Routing - Ethernet Driver - Wire
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the location of the hosts file on IPSO (Choose one):
A. /var
B. /var/config
C. /etc/hosts
Answer: C

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NO.6 At what value must the TTL for a VRRP packet be set to:
A. 250
B. 255
C. 10
D. 100
Answer: B

Nokia   NO0-002   NO0-002   NO0-002

NO.7 What are the advantages of an external syslog server Vs data log files (Choose
three):
A. External backup of logs in case of malicious activity
B. Guaranteed delivery of logs
C. Multiple indexing and searching of logs
D. Ability to see more information and select what outputs including internal facility and
severity fields?
E. Allows a user to see Object ID
Answer: A,C,D

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Incorrect answers:
B - There is no guarantee of delivery. The NAP could be down, or the syslog daemon
failed.
E - You will not see Object ID's. What you would be able to see is the remote device IP
and hostname.

NO.8 What commands can display interface statistics (Choose one):
A. Ifconfig -a (iclid)
B. Ipconfig -a (clish)
C. Show interface (clish)
D. Ifconfig -a (clish)
E. Show interface (iclid)
Answer: D, E

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NO.9 What are invalid commands in the boot manager (Choose one):
A. Boot
B. Set-defaults
C. Ls
D. setRAID
E. setenv
Answer: D

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NO.10 What ICLID command will show the version of the OS:
A. Show running config
B. Copy run start
C. Show version
D. Fw Ver
Answer: C

Nokia exam   NO0-002   NO0-002

NO.11 Commands to terminate an ICLID session are:
A. Close
B. Exit
C. Stop
D. Quit
Answer: B, D

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NO.12 Misuse is accepted as non-attack activity from inside the company itself:
A. False
B. True
Answer: B

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NO.13 You can no longer gain access to your Nokia firewall via secure
communications. What command will give you access and reset http:
A. Voyager -e 0 80
B. Set voyager ssl-level 0
C. Apachd -0 httpd.conf
D. Set Httpd -r -s
Answer: A, B

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NO.14 What are the correct duplex settings. Which gives the more complete answer.
A. Console - Half Duplex and Full Duplex for a Serial connection
B. Cat6 Always full duplex
C. Serial always full duplex
D. Full Duplex - Switch and Half Duplex - Hub
Answer: D

Nokia exam simulations   NO0-002   NO0-002
The most correct answer in this case would be Full Duplex for a switch, Half Duplex for
a hub

NO.15 What command will allow you to view the current connections table (Choose two):
A. fw tab -t connections -s
B. fwconn -i
C. fwtable -i
D. cpconntab -t
Answer: A, C

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NO.16 You want to live messages in the log file. What command would you use via clish
(Choose one):
A. Vi -e /var/log/messages
B. Tail -200 /var/db/messages
C. Tail - t /var/log/messages |more
D. Fw log -nft
E. Tail -f /var/log/messages
Answer: E

Nokia   NO0-002   NO0-002   NO0-002
Tail -f views messages in real-time. Fw log views the Firewall connection logs in
real-time

NO.17 When using voyager what will make permanent changes after a reboot (Choose
one):
A. Clicking apply
B. Clicking apply and then save
C. Saving changes from advanced fw config
D. Clicking apply and rebooting the NAP
Answer: B

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Clicking apply only saves changes to the running configuration. Which are overwritten at
startup by /config/db/inital

NO.18 To what location/directory does Voyager make changes
(Choose one):
A. /config/db
B. /conf/
C. /var/conf
D. /var/admin
Answer: A

Nokia   NO0-002   NO0-002 pdf   NO0-002

NO.19 The correct switch for single user mode from Boot manager on an IP440 is:
A. -s
B. Boot-p
C. b-f
D. -singlemode
Answer: A

Nokia exam dumps   NO0-002   NO0-002

NO.20 What is not true of DNS on IPSO with Checkpoint NG (Choose one):
A. Checkpoint needs this in case of domain usage in policy
B. Reduces the number of hostname file assignments (less IP's required to be entered
manually)
C. Requires least one host entry of the machine itself, for Checkpoint
D. DNS must be enabled at startup for the NAP to function correctly
Answer: D

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Exam Code: NS0-163
Exam Name: Network Appliance (Network Appliance Data Protection Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 154 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which command or procedure would you use to undo a volume SnapRestore operation?
A. snap restore -r <vol/snapshotname> vol <path_and_vol_name>
B. snap revert -s <vol/snapshotname> vol <path_and_vol_name>
C. snap restore undo vol <path_and_vol_name>
D. You cannot undo a SnapRestore operation at the volume level.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Before enabling an active/active configuration, you should verify and compare the configuration of the
nodes. Which tool can perform this task?
A. cf-config-check.cgi script
B. cf status command on both nodes
C. clustercheck script
D. Release Comparison Tool
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the correct format for the scheduling component of a SnapVault schedule?
A. YYYY-MM-DD
B. crontab format
C. cnt[@day_list][@hour_list]
D. List of dates in ISO Date format
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement applies to the Open Systems SnapVault Free Space Estimator utility?
A. This utility run automatically after each transfer.
B. This utility must be enabled on the secondary storage system.
C. This utility determines if there is sufficient disk space available on the primary to perform an OSSV
transfer.
D. This utility determines if there is sufficient disk space available on the secondary to perform an OSSV
transfer.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A snapshot is a frozen, read-only image of the entire Data ONTAP active file system that reflects the
state of the ____________ at the time the snapshot was created.
A. qtrees
B. volume
C. directory
D. storage system
Answer: B

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NO.6 The ONTAP SnapVault primary license on the target storage system is required for Open System
SnapVault.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which system is recommended as a secondary system for SnapVault?
A. IS1200
B. DataFort
C. NearStore VTL
D. FAS with NearStore license
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which option will allow a storage system to SnapMirror from this source system?
A. snapmirror.access <destination_filer>
B. snapmirror.destination <destination_filer>
C. options snapmirror.allow host = <destination_filer>
D. options snapmirror.access host = <destination_filer>
Answer: D

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NO.9 A NearStore license increases the amount of concurrent replication streams.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which three /etc/snapmirror.conf entries will support synchronous or semi-synchronous SnapMirror?
(Choose three.)
A. FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol - sync
B. FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol - 0-55/5 * * *
C. FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol outstanding=3s sync
D. FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol visibility_interval=1hr, outstanding=3ms, cksum=crc32 sync
Answer: ACD

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NO.11 Which is true of the SnapVault backup of NetApp storage system?
A. The file is the basic unit for SnapVault backup destination.
B. The qtree is the basic unit for SnapVault backup destination.
C. The volume is the basic unit of SnapVault backup destination.
D. The directory is the basic unit for SnapVault backup destination.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which Data ONTAP option sets system-wide throttling for all transfers?
A. options transfer.wide.enable
B. options transfer.throttle.enable
C. options replication.wide.enable
D. options replication.throttle.enable
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which two choices are used to configure a semi-synchronous SnapMirror relationship? (Choose two.)
A. throttle
B. visibility interval
C. outstanding=3s in DOT 7.2
D. using option semi-sync in DOT 7.3 and higher
Answer: CD

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NO.14 Which action will cause a currently in-sync SnapMirror relationship to fall out of sync?
A. Running snapmirror update on the source storage system
B. Running snapmirror release on the source storage system
C. Modifying the /etc/snapmirror.conf file for the relationship on the source storage system
D. Modifying the /etc/snapmirror.conf file for the relationship on the destination storage system
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which command creates a new SyncMirror aggregate, letting Data ONTAP select the disk drives?
A. aggr create aggrX -d 12
B. aggr create aggrX -m 12
C. aggr mirror aggrX -m 12
D. aggr mirror aggrX -n 12
Answer: B

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NO.16 Data ONTAP uses inodes in an active file system to reference ___________.
A. qtrees
B. disk blocks
C. file segments
D. Snapshot copies
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which OSSV tool would you use to perform an OSSV unattended installation?
A. msipackage
B. svunattendossv
C. svconfigpackager
D. unattendpackager
Answer: C

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NO.18 Assume fabric-attached MetroCluster using hardware disk ownership. If the local node has its FC HBA
connected to switch bank 1, it owns the disks connected to switch bank ___.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.19 The snapvault snap sched -x command is used to ____________.
A. schedule full backups
B. cancel scheduled backups
C. schedule baseline transfer
D. schedule incremental backups
Answer: D

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NO.20 The SnapVault secondary system allows you to keep a separate schedule of Snapshot copies from
your primary system.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Exam Code: NS0-156
Exam Name: Network Appliance (Data ONTAP Cluster-Mode Administrator)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 154 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which two statements are true in a SnapMirror LS mirror relationship? (Choose two.)
A. Client requests to write data are allowed if the user is root.
B. Client requests to write data are denied unless accessing the admin share.
C. Client requests to read data are only allowed if the mirror is up-to-date.
D. Client requests to read data are redirected to the LS mirror destination volumes.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which five protocols are supported by Data ONTAP 8.1 Cluster-Mode? (Choose five.)
A. CIFS
B. FC
C. FCIP
D. FCoE
E. iFCP
F. iSCSI
G. NFS
Answer: A,B,D,F,G

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NO.3 Which two SMB versions does Data ONTAP Cluster-Mode support? (Choose two.)
A. SMB 1.0
B. SMB 2.0
C. SMB 3.0
D. SMB 4.0
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which statement is true about a Data Protection (DP)-type SnapMirror destination volume?
A. It can be in a Data ONTAP GX cluster.
B. It must be on the same disk type as the source volume.
C. It can be smaller than the source volume.
D. It can be on a different disk type than the source volume.
Answer: D

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NO.5 How does the NetApp Remote Support Agent (RSA) connect to NetApp Support?
A. NetApp Support initiates a secure connection to the RSA.
B. NetApp Support initiates a non-secure connection to the RSA.
C. The RSA initiates a secure connection to NetApp Support.
D. The RSA initiates a non-secure connection to NetApp Support.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which storage system combination is supported in Cluster-Mode?
A. a pair of FAS3270s and a pair of FAS3020s
B. a pair of FAS3270s with a FAS3240 and a FAS6240
C. a pair of FAS6280s and a pair of E7900s
D. a pair of FAS6280s and a pair of FAS3240s
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which command can be used to identify the target iqn name in Data ONTAP 8.1 Cluster-Mode and
later?
A. cluster iscsi name
B. cluster iscsi nodename
C. cluster iscsi show
D. vserver iscsi nodename
E. vserver iscsi name
F. vserver iscsi show
Answer: F

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NO.8 Which two methods expose volumes to NAS clients? (Choose two.)
A. mount directories of a volume in a namespace
B. mount the required namespaces in a volume
C. mount the required namespaces in an aggregate
D. mount the required volumes in a namespace
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 What does Storage Failover allow?
A. disks to fail over between HA partners
B. disks to fail over to a plex
C. disks to fail over to any node in a cluster
D. disks to fail over to the Epsilon node
Answer: A

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NO.10 To operate Data ONTAP 8.1 Cluster-Mode SAN, what must be configured on both the initiator and
target.?
A. Logical Unit Access Initialization
B. Physical Unit Access Initialization
C. Symmetric Logical Unit Access
D. Asymmetric Logical Unit Access
E. SAN Access Initialization Protocol
Answer: D

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